Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider prescribes erythromycin (Ilosone) 300 mg PO QID. The medication label reads, 'Ilosone 100mg/5mL.' How many mL should the nurse administer at each dose?

• A. 15 mL
• B. 10 mL
• C. 20 mL
• D. 5 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the volume of medication needed for a 300 mg dose of Ilosone (100mg/5mL), we set up a proportion: 100 mg is to 5 mL as 300 mg is to x mL. Cross-multiplying, we get x = (300*5)/100 = 15 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 15 mL at each dose. Choice B (10 mL) is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation based on the medication concentration. Choices C (20 mL) and D (5 mL) are also incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the volume required for the prescribed dose.

2. The nurse plans to administer the rubella vaccine to a postpartum client whose titer is < 1:8 and who is breastfeeding. What information should the nurse provide this client?

• A. The client should bottle feed and pump her breast for 3 days following immunization
• B. The vaccine is given to produce maternal antibodies before lactation occurs
• C. The infant will receive immunization through the mother's breast milk
• D. The client should not get pregnant for 3 months after immunization

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Educating about the waiting period helps prevent possible rubella infection in a subsequent early pregnancy.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube after thoracic surgery. What is the most important assessment related to the chest tube?

• A. Ensure continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
• B. Measure the amount of drainage every shift
• C. Keep the drainage system at the level of the chest
• D. Assess for subcutaneous emphysema around the insertion site

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most important assessment related to a chest tube after thoracic surgery is to assess for subcutaneous emphysema around the insertion site. Subcutaneous emphysema can indicate air leakage from the pleural space, which can lead to serious complications such as a pneumothorax. Ensuring continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber is not the most critical assessment as it is a normal finding in a chest drainage system. While measuring the amount of drainage is important to monitor the client's condition, it is not as crucial as assessing for subcutaneous emphysema. Keeping the drainage system at the level of the chest helps maintain proper function but is not the most critical assessment in this scenario.

4. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being discharged with a prescription for epoetin alfa (Epogen). What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Monitor your blood pressure regularly.
• C. Expect to feel better immediately.
• D. Avoid foods high in potassium.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor your blood pressure regularly.' Epoetin alfa (Epogen) can lead to hypertension as a side effect, so it is essential for clients with CKD to monitor their blood pressure regularly. Choice A is incorrect because epoetin alfa does not need to be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because the client should not expect immediate improvement upon starting the medication. Choice D is incorrect because while monitoring potassium intake is important in CKD, the question specifically pertains to epoetin alfa and its side effects, not potassium intake.

5. A new father asks the nurse the reason for placing an ophthalmic ointment in his newborn's eyes. What information should the nurse provide?

• A. Possible exposure to an environmental staphylococcus infection can infect the newborn's eyes and cause visual deficits
• B. The newborn is at risk for blindness from a corneal syphilitic infection acquired from a mother's infected vagina
• C. Treatment prevents tear duct obstruction with harmful exudate from a vaginal birth that can lead to dry eyes in the newborn
• D. State law mandates all newborns receive prophylactic treatment to prevent gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because informing about state law emphasizes the legal requirement and public health rationale behind prophylactic eye treatment to prevent serious infections like gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A focuses on staphylococcus infection, which is not the primary concern addressed by the prophylactic ointment. Choice B mentions a specific infection acquired from the mother's infected vagina, which is not the main reason for the ophthalmic ointment. Choice C discusses tear duct obstruction and dry eyes, which are not the primary concerns addressed by the prophylactic ointment.

Similar Questions