HESI LPN
Adult Health Exam 1
1. The healthcare provider prescribes erythromycin (Ilosone) 300 mg PO QID. The medication label reads, 'Ilosone 100mg/5mL.' How many mL should the nurse administer at each dose?
- A. 15 mL
- B. 10 mL
- C. 20 mL
- D. 5 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To determine the volume of medication needed for a 300 mg dose of Ilosone (100mg/5mL), we set up a proportion: 100 mg is to 5 mL as 300 mg is to x mL. Cross-multiplying, we get x = (300*5)/100 = 15 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 15 mL at each dose. Choice B (10 mL) is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation based on the medication concentration. Choices C (20 mL) and D (5 mL) are also incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the volume required for the prescribed dose.
2. The nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver. Which clinical finding is most concerning?
- A. Jaundice.
- B. Ascites.
- C. Spider angiomas.
- D. Asterixis.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Asterixis. Asterixis, also known as liver flap, is a sign of hepatic encephalopathy, a severe complication of liver disease that necessitates immediate attention. While jaundice (choice A), ascites (choice B), and spider angiomas (choice C) are common clinical findings in cirrhosis, asterixis is the most concerning due to its association with hepatic encephalopathy, which can lead to altered mental status and even coma. Jaundice, ascites, and spider angiomas are also important signs in cirrhosis, but asterixis indicates a more critical condition requiring urgent intervention.
3. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Persistent cough
- D. Tachycardia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persistent cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly associated with a persistent dry cough as a side effect. This cough is thought to result from increased bradykinin levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypokalemia is not a common side effect of lisinopril; in fact, it may lead to hyperkalemia. Hyperglycemia is not a typical side effect of lisinopril use. Tachycardia is also not a common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors like lisinopril.
4. A client with a history of pulmonary embolism is on anticoagulant therapy. What should the nurse monitor regularly?
- A. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
- B. Blood glucose levels
- C. Blood pressure
- D. Temperature
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct! Monitoring INR is essential in clients on anticoagulant therapy to ensure the blood's clotting time is within the therapeutic range, preventing further embolic events or excessive bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice B), blood pressure (Choice C), and temperature (Choice D) is important for various other conditions but is not directly related to anticoagulant therapy for a client with a history of pulmonary embolism.
5. The nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a 6-month-old infant. Which site is most appropriate for this injection?
- A. Deltoid muscle
- B. Ventrogluteal muscle
- C. Dorsogluteal muscle
- D. Vastus lateralis muscle
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The vastus lateralis muscle is the preferred site for intramuscular injections in infants due to its size and safety. The deltoid muscle is typically used for adults and older children. The ventrogluteal muscle is more commonly used in toddlers and older children. The dorsogluteal muscle is not recommended for intramuscular injections in any age group due to its proximity to major nerves and blood vessels, which poses a risk of injury or sciatic nerve damage.
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