Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider prescribes erythromycin (Ilosone) 300 mg PO QID. The medication label reads, 'Ilosone 100mg/5mL.' How many mL should the nurse administer at each dose?

• A. 15 mL
• B. 10 mL
• C. 20 mL
• D. 5 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the volume of medication needed for a 300 mg dose of Ilosone (100mg/5mL), we set up a proportion: 100 mg is to 5 mL as 300 mg is to x mL. Cross-multiplying, we get x = (300*5)/100 = 15 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 15 mL at each dose. Choice B (10 mL) is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation based on the medication concentration. Choices C (20 mL) and D (5 mL) are also incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the volume required for the prescribed dose.

2. Prior to administering morphine sulfate (Morphine), the nurse takes the client's vital signs. Based on which finding should the nurse withhold administration of the medication until the charge nurse is notified?

• A. Temperature of 100.8°F
• B. A pulse rate of 150 beats per minute
• C. A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
• D. A blood pressure of 180/110

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a low respiratory rate is a critical concern when administering opioids like morphine, as they can suppress breathing. A high pulse rate (choice B) and high blood pressure (choice D) are not immediate contraindications for administering morphine. A slightly elevated temperature (choice A) may not necessarily require withholding morphine.

3. The nurse plans to administer the rubella vaccine to a postpartum client whose titer is < 1:8 and who is breastfeeding. What information should the nurse provide this client?

• A. The client should bottle feed and pump her breast for 3 days following immunization
• B. The vaccine is given to produce maternal antibodies before lactation occurs
• C. The infant will receive immunization through the mother's breast milk
• D. The client should not get pregnant for 3 months after immunization

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Educating about the waiting period helps prevent possible rubella infection in a subsequent early pregnancy.

4. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ). Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B. Hyponatremia.' Hydrochlorothiazide can lead to electrolyte imbalances, such as hyponatremia, due to its diuretic effect. This potential adverse effect should be closely monitored in patients taking HCTZ. Choice A, hyperkalemia, is less likely to occur with HCTZ as it tends to cause hypokalemia. Choice C, bradycardia, is not a common adverse effect of HCTZ. Choice D, hyperglycemia, is also less commonly associated with HCTZ use compared to hyponatremia.

5. A client with a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Administer glucagon intramuscularly.
• B. Provide a complex carbohydrate snack.
• C. Administer 50% dextrose intravenously.
• D. Give 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to give 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate as the priority intervention in a client experiencing hypoglycemia. This helps quickly raise the blood glucose level. Administering glucagon intramuscularly (Choice A) is typically reserved for severe hypoglycemia where the client is unable to take oral carbohydrates. Providing a complex carbohydrate snack (Choice B) is not the priority in an acute hypoglycemic episode where immediate action is needed. Administering 50% dextrose intravenously (Choice C) is more invasive and usually reserved for cases where the client is unable to take anything by mouth.

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