Nursing Elites

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is struggling to breathe. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Increase the oxygen flow rate according to the prescription
• B. Encourage the client to perform pursed-lip breathing
• C. Prepare for emergency intubation
• D. Assess the client's oxygen saturation and breath sounds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for a nurse when a client with COPD is struggling to breathe is to assess the client's oxygen saturation and breath sounds. This initial assessment is crucial in determining the severity of the client's condition and the appropriate intervention. Increasing the oxygen flow rate without proper assessment can potentially be harmful, as COPD clients have a risk of retaining carbon dioxide. Encouraging pursed-lip breathing can be beneficial but should come after assessing the client's current status. Emergency intubation is a drastic measure and should only be considered after a comprehensive assessment indicates the need for it.

2. The client is being taught about managing chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which dietary restriction should be emphasized the most?

• A. Limit consumption of high-fiber foods
• B. Restrict protein intake
• C. Avoid dairy products
• D. Increase fluid intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Restricting protein intake is vital in managing chronic kidney disease (CKD) as it helps decrease the kidneys' workload and slows down disease progression. High-fiber foods are generally beneficial for health and should not be limited in CKD management. Dairy products can be consumed moderately unless contraindicated. While adequate fluid intake is crucial, increasing intake excessively may not be suitable for all CKD patients, especially those with fluid restrictions. Therefore, the most crucial dietary restriction to emphasize in CKD management is restricting protein intake.

3. When counting a client's radial pulse, the nurse notes the pulse is weak and irregular. To record the most accurate heart rate, what should the nurse do?

• A. Recheck the radial pulse in thirty minutes
• B. Palpate the radial pulse for thirty seconds and double the rate
• C. Count the apical pulse rate for sixty seconds
• D. Compare the radial pulse rate bilaterally and record the higher rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to count the apical pulse rate for sixty seconds. The apical pulse is more accurate, especially when peripheral pulses are weak or irregular. Counting the apical pulse for a full minute provides a more precise heart rate measurement. Option A is incorrect because waiting for thirty minutes is unnecessary and could delay potential interventions. Option B is incorrect because doubling the radial pulse rate may not provide an accurate representation of the heart rate. Option D is incorrect because comparing radial pulses bilaterally does not give the most accurate heart rate measurement; the apical pulse is preferred in this situation.

4. What intervention has the highest priority for a client with a fourth-degree midline laceration following the vaginal delivery of an 8-pound 10-ounce infant?

• A. Administer a prescribed stool softener
• B. Administer prescribed PRN sleep medications
• C. Encourage breastfeeding to promote uterine involution
• D. Encourage the use of prescribed analgesic perineal sprays

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a prescribed stool softener is the highest priority intervention for a client with a fourth-degree midline laceration to prevent straining during bowel movements, which could potentially harm the healing laceration. Stool softeners help in maintaining soft stools, reducing the risk of injury to the suture line. Administering PRN sleep medications, encouraging breastfeeding, or promoting the use of analgesic perineal sprays are important aspects of care but are not the priority in this situation. Stool softeners play a crucial role in preventing complications and promoting healing in such cases, making it the most urgent intervention.

5. How should the nurse assess for cyanosis in a client with dark skin who is in respiratory distress?

• A. Abnormal skin color changes in a client with dark skin cannot be determined
• B. Blanching the soles of the feet in a client with dark skin reveals cyanosis
• C. The lips and mucus membranes of a client with dark skin are dusky in color
• D. Cyanosis in a client with dark skin is seen in the sclera

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Observing the lips and mucous membranes provides a reliable indicator of cyanosis in clients with dark skin tones. Choice A is incorrect because cyanosis can be assessed in clients with dark skin by observing other body areas. Choice B is incorrect as blanching the soles of the feet is not a relevant method for assessing cyanosis. Choice D is incorrect as cyanosis is not typically seen in the sclera in clients with dark skin.

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