HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Exam 1
1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has just undergone abdominal surgery. Which finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Absence of bowel sounds
- B. Mild abdominal distention
- C. Drainage of serosanguineous fluid from the incision
- D. Sudden onset of severe abdominal pain
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Sudden onset of severe abdominal pain may indicate complications such as peritonitis, bowel perforation, or internal bleeding. These conditions are serious and require immediate medical attention to prevent further complications or deterioration. Absence of bowel sounds, mild abdominal distention, and drainage of serosanguineous fluid are common findings after abdominal surgery and may not necessarily indicate an emergency situation requiring immediate reporting to the healthcare provider. Severe abdominal pain post-surgery should always be reported promptly as it could signify a life-threatening situation that needs urgent evaluation and intervention.
2. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being discharged with a prescription for epoetin alfa (Epogen). What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Monitor your blood pressure regularly.
- C. Expect to feel better immediately.
- D. Avoid foods high in potassium.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor your blood pressure regularly.' Epoetin alfa (Epogen) can lead to hypertension as a side effect, so it is essential for clients with CKD to monitor their blood pressure regularly. Choice A is incorrect because epoetin alfa does not need to be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because the client should not expect immediate improvement upon starting the medication. Choice D is incorrect because while monitoring potassium intake is important in CKD, the question specifically pertains to epoetin alfa and its side effects, not potassium intake.
3. A client is admitted with Atrial Fibrillation and is administered amiodarone (Cordarone). What therapeutic response should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Conversion of irregular heart rate to regular heart rhythm
- B. Pulse oximetry readings within normal range during activity
- C. Peripheral pulse points with adequate capillary refill
- D. Increase in exercise tolerance without shortness of breath
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Conversion of irregular heart rate to regular heart rhythm. Amiodarone is a medication commonly used to restore and maintain normal heart rhythm in clients with atrial fibrillation. It works by slowing down the electrical signals in the heart, helping to regulate the heartbeat. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the therapeutic response expected from administering amiodarone in a client with atrial fibrillation. Pulse oximetry readings, peripheral pulses, capillary refill, and exercise tolerance are important assessments but are not the primary therapeutic goal of using amiodarone in this situation.
4. When assisting a client to obtain a sputum specimen, the nurse observes the client cough and spit a large amount of frothy saliva in the specimen collection cup. What action should the nurse implement next?
- A. Advise the client that suctioning will be used to obtain another specimen
- B. Re-instruct the client in coughing techniques to obtain another specimen
- C. Provide the client a glass of water and mouthwash to rinse the mouth
- D. Label the container and place the container in a biohazard transport bag
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After observing the client cough and produce frothy saliva in the collection cup, the nurse should provide the client with a glass of water and mouthwash to rinse the mouth. This action helps clear the mouth of contaminants, ensuring a more accurate sputum specimen for diagnostic testing. Option A is incorrect because suctioning is not the appropriate next step in this situation. Option B is unnecessary as re-instructing the client in coughing techniques may not address the immediate issue of contaminated saliva in the specimen. Option D is premature since labeling and transporting the container should only be done after obtaining a valid specimen.
5. A client begins taking an antidepressant drug during the second day of hospitalization. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care while the client is taking the antidepressant?
- A. Appetite
- B. Mood
- C. Withdrawal
- D. Energy level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring the client's mood is essential when starting an antidepressant to assess for any changes or adverse effects related to the medication. Changes in mood can indicate the effectiveness of the antidepressant or potential side effects. Assessing appetite (Choice A) is important but not as crucial as monitoring mood in this context. Withdrawal symptoms (Choice C) are more relevant when discontinuing antidepressants rather than starting them. Energy level (Choice D) can be influenced by various factors and may not directly reflect the client's response to the antidepressant.
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