Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a suspected diagnosis of appendicitis. Which symptom is most indicative of this condition?

• A. Right upper quadrant pain
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point
• D. Hematuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point is a classic sign of appendicitis. This symptom is due to irritation of the peritoneum when pressure is released during palpation. Right upper quadrant pain (Choice A) is more commonly associated with gallbladder issues. Nausea and vomiting (Choice B) can occur in various abdominal conditions and are not specific to appendicitis. Hematuria (Choice D) is the presence of blood in the urine and is not a typical symptom of appendicitis.

2. Which nonfood item is the most common cause of respiratory arrest in young children?

• A. Broken rattles
• B. Buttons
• C. Pacifiers
• D. Latex balloons

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Latex balloons. Latex balloons can pose a significant choking hazard to young children if inhaled, potentially leading to respiratory arrest. Broken rattles, buttons, and pacifiers are not typically known to cause respiratory arrest in young children. While these items can present choking hazards as well, the most common cause of respiratory arrest among young children is due to inhaling latex balloons.

3. A client with a history of pulmonary embolism is on anticoagulant therapy. What should the nurse monitor regularly?

• A. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
• B. Blood glucose levels
• C. Blood pressure
• D. Temperature

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Monitoring INR is essential in clients on anticoagulant therapy to ensure the blood's clotting time is within the therapeutic range, preventing further embolic events or excessive bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice B), blood pressure (Choice C), and temperature (Choice D) is important for various other conditions but is not directly related to anticoagulant therapy for a client with a history of pulmonary embolism.

4. The client has chronic renal failure. What dietary modification is most important for this client?

• A. Increase protein intake
• B. Limit potassium-rich foods
• C. Increase sodium intake
• D. Encourage dairy products

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Limiting potassium-rich foods is crucial in chronic renal failure to prevent hyperkalemia, which can lead to cardiac complications. Excessive protein intake can increase the workload on the kidneys and may result in the accumulation of uremic toxins. Increasing sodium intake is generally discouraged in chronic renal failure due to its association with hypertension and fluid retention. Encouraging dairy products may not be suitable for all clients with chronic renal failure, as they are a significant source of phosphorus, which needs to be limited in renal failure to prevent mineral imbalances.

5. The nurse is planning to ambulate a client who has been on bed rest for 24 hours following a Colon Resection. To ambulate this client safely, which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Place non-skid shoes on the client
• B. Show the client how to use the call light
• C. Use a gait belt to support the client
• D. Assist the client to a bedside sitting position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To ambulate a client safely after a period of bed rest, the nurse should first assist the client to a bedside sitting position. This initial step ensures the client is stable before attempting to stand and walk, reducing the risk of falls and allowing for a gradual adjustment to activity post-bed rest. Placing non-skid shoes, showing how to use the call light, or using a gait belt are important but should come after ensuring the client is safely seated and stable.

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