Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a suspected diagnosis of appendicitis. Which symptom is most indicative of this condition?

• A. Right upper quadrant pain
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point
• D. Hematuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point is a classic sign of appendicitis. This symptom is due to irritation of the peritoneum when pressure is released during palpation. Right upper quadrant pain (Choice A) is more commonly associated with gallbladder issues. Nausea and vomiting (Choice B) can occur in various abdominal conditions and are not specific to appendicitis. Hematuria (Choice D) is the presence of blood in the urine and is not a typical symptom of appendicitis.

2. A 4-year-old with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) is receiving a chemotherapy protocol that includes methotrexate, an antimetabolite. Which information should the nurse provide the parents about caring for their child?

• A. Use sunblock or protective clothing when outdoors.
• B. Include the child in regular outings with the family.
• C. Obtain any childhood vaccinations that are not up-to-date.
• D. Use diluted commercial mouthwash for mouth care.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to use sunblock or protective clothing when outdoors. Methotrexate can cause photosensitivity, making the child more prone to sunburns and skin damage. Therefore, advising the parents to protect their child's skin from direct sunlight exposure is crucial. Choice B is incorrect because exposing the child to direct sunlight without protection can worsen the photosensitivity caused by methotrexate. Choice C is incorrect as obtaining vaccinations is generally avoided during chemotherapy due to the child's compromised immune system. Choice D is incorrect as commercial mouthwash may contain alcohol, which can be irritating to the child's oral mucosa, especially during chemotherapy.

3. When assisting a client to obtain a sputum specimen, the nurse observes the client cough and spit a large amount of frothy saliva in the specimen collection cup. What action should the nurse implement next?

• A. Advise the client that suctioning will be used to obtain another specimen
• B. Re-instruct the client in coughing techniques to obtain another specimen
• C. Provide the client a glass of water and mouthwash to rinse the mouth
• D. Label the container and place the container in a biohazard transport bag

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After observing the client cough and produce frothy saliva in the collection cup, the nurse should provide the client with a glass of water and mouthwash to rinse the mouth. This action helps clear the mouth of contaminants, ensuring a more accurate sputum specimen for diagnostic testing. Option A is incorrect because suctioning is not the appropriate next step in this situation. Option B is unnecessary as re-instructing the client in coughing techniques may not address the immediate issue of contaminated saliva in the specimen. Option D is premature since labeling and transporting the container should only be done after obtaining a valid specimen.

4. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Persistent cough
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Persistent cough. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly associated with a persistent dry cough as a side effect. This cough is thought to result from increased bradykinin levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypokalemia is not a common side effect of lisinopril; in fact, it may lead to hyperkalemia. Hyperglycemia is not a typical side effect of lisinopril use. Tachycardia is also not a common side effect associated with ACE inhibitors like lisinopril.

5. Which of the following are key parameters that produce blood pressure? (Select ONE that does not apply)

• A. Heart rate
• B. Stroke volume
• C. Peripheral resistance
• D. Neuroendocrine hormones

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Heart rate, stroke volume, and peripheral resistance are indeed key parameters that directly influence blood pressure. Heart rate refers to the number of times the heart beats per minute, affecting how much blood is pumped. Stroke volume is the amount of blood pumped by the heart in one contraction. Peripheral resistance is the resistance of the arteries to blood flow, impacting the pressure needed to push blood through. Neuroendocrine hormones, while they can indirectly influence blood pressure regulation by affecting factors like blood volume and vascular tone, are not direct final parameters that produce blood pressure.

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