a client with a history of seizure disorder who is receiving phenytoin dilantin is being discharged which instruction should the nurse provide
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 2 Exam 1

1. A client with a history of seizure disorder who is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) is being discharged. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor drug levels regularly. This is crucial for phenytoin (Dilantin) to ensure that the medication levels are within the therapeutic range and to prevent toxicity. Choice A, taking the medication at bedtime, is not specifically required for phenytoin administration. Choice C, avoiding alcohol, is generally a good practice with medications but is not as critical as monitoring drug levels for phenytoin. Choice D, taking the medication at the same time every day, is important for consistency but does not address the specific monitoring needs of phenytoin.

2. A client with a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is experiencing symptoms of hypoglycemia. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to give 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate as the priority intervention in a client experiencing hypoglycemia. This helps quickly raise the blood glucose level. Administering glucagon intramuscularly (Choice A) is typically reserved for severe hypoglycemia where the client is unable to take oral carbohydrates. Providing a complex carbohydrate snack (Choice B) is not the priority in an acute hypoglycemic episode where immediate action is needed. Administering 50% dextrose intravenously (Choice C) is more invasive and usually reserved for cases where the client is unable to take anything by mouth.

3. The nurse is assessing a client who has just received a blood transfusion. The client reports chills and back pain. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stop the transfusion immediately. Chills and back pain are indicative of a possible transfusion reaction, which is a critical situation. Stopping the transfusion is crucial to prevent further complications and ensure the client's safety. Slowing the rate of transfusion (Choice A) is not sufficient in this case as immediate action is required. Administering an antipyretic (Choice B) may help with fever but does not address the potential severe reaction. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be done after stopping the transfusion, but the priority is to halt the infusion to prevent harm.

4. The client is being educated by the nurse about the side effects of prednisone. Which side effect should the client be instructed to report immediately?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Fever or sore throat. These symptoms should be reported immediately as they could indicate an infection, which can be serious in clients taking prednisone due to its immunosuppressive effects. Choices A and B are common side effects of prednisone but are not typically considered urgent. Choice C, hyperglycemia, is a known side effect of prednisone but is not an immediate concern compared to the potential of an infection signaled by fever or sore throat.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder who has been prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). What is the most important teaching point?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct teaching point is to instruct the client to report any increase in suicidal thoughts. This is crucial because SSRIs like fluoxetine can initially increase suicidal ideation, especially at the beginning of treatment. Choice A is corrected to emphasize that fluoxetine can be taken with or without food. Choice C is unrelated as it pertains more to MAOIs than SSRIs like fluoxetine. Choice D is inaccurate as antidepressants like fluoxetine may take weeks to show significant improvement in symptoms, not within 24 hours.

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