Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of seizure disorder who is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) is being discharged. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Monitor drug levels regularly.
• C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• D. Take the medication at the same time every day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor drug levels regularly. This is crucial for phenytoin (Dilantin) to ensure that the medication levels are within the therapeutic range and to prevent toxicity. Choice A, taking the medication at bedtime, is not specifically required for phenytoin administration. Choice C, avoiding alcohol, is generally a good practice with medications but is not as critical as monitoring drug levels for phenytoin. Choice D, taking the medication at the same time every day, is important for consistency but does not address the specific monitoring needs of phenytoin.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax. Which assessment finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
• B. Absence of drainage in the collection chamber
• C. Tidaling in the water seal chamber
• D. Presence of subcutaneous emphysema around the insertion site

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. This finding may indicate an air leak, which can compromise the effectiveness of the chest tube in re-expanding the lung. Absence of drainage in the collection chamber (choice B) may signify that the chest tube is blocked, but it does not pose an immediate threat to the client's condition. Tidaling in the water seal chamber (choice C) is an expected finding and indicates proper functioning of the chest tube system. Presence of subcutaneous emphysema around the insertion site (choice D) suggests air leakage but is not as urgent as continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.

3. A client is scheduled for a sigmoidoscopy and expresses anxiety about the procedure. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Offer information about the procedure steps
• B. Administer an anxiolytic before the procedure
• C. Encourage the client to discuss their fears
• D. Reassure the client that the procedure is common and safe

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse when a client expresses anxiety about a procedure is to encourage the client to discuss their fears. By allowing the client to express their concerns, the nurse can provide personalized support, address specific worries, and offer tailored information. This approach helps to establish trust, reduce anxiety, and promote a therapeutic nurse-client relationship. Offering information about the procedure steps (Choice A) may be helpful but should come after addressing the client's fears. Administering an anxiolytic (Choice B) should not be the first action as it focuses on symptom management rather than addressing the underlying cause of anxiety. Reassuring the client that the procedure is common and safe (Choice D) is important but should follow active listening and addressing the client's fears.

4. The nurse is monitoring a client with an IV infusion in the left antecubital fossa. The site is warm, red, and without swelling. What conclusion should the nurse draw from these findings?

• A. The IV fluids are infusing into the subcutaneous tissues
• B. The infusion pump is functioning properly
• C. The insertion date should be verified and the IV discontinued
• D. The site is inflamed and should be reported

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Warmth and redness at the IV site without swelling indicate a localized reaction, which is common and does not necessarily indicate infiltration of IV fluids into the subcutaneous tissues. The absence of swelling suggests that the IV is correctly placed. Therefore, the nurse should conclude that the infusion pump is functioning properly. Choice A is incorrect as warmth and redness alone do not indicate subcutaneous infiltration. Choice C is incorrect as discontinuing the IV solely based on warmth and redness without swelling is not necessary. Choice D is incorrect as the absence of swelling signifies a localized reaction rather than inflammation requiring immediate reporting.

5. A client has a prescription for enteric-coated (EC) aspirin 325mg PO daily. The medication drawer contains one 325mg aspirin. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Contact the pharmacy and request the prescribed form of aspirin
• B. Instruct the client about the effects of the medication
• C. Administer the aspirin with a full glass of water or a small snack
• D. Withhold the aspirin until consulting with the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to contact the pharmacy and request the prescribed form of aspirin. Enteric-coated medications are designed to dissolve in the intestine, not the stomach, to avoid irritation. Therefore, it is essential to ensure the client receives the correct form of aspirin as prescribed. Instructing the client about the effects of the medication (choice B) is not necessary at this point as the issue is related to the form of the aspirin. Administering the aspirin with a full glass of water or a small snack (choice C) is not appropriate as it does not address the need for the correct form of the medication. Withholding the aspirin (choice D) without consulting the healthcare provider is not advisable as it may lead to a delay in the client receiving the necessary medication.

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