HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam
1. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease (PUD). Which dietary recommendation is most appropriate?
- A. Increase fiber intake.
- B. Avoid spicy foods.
- C. Avoid dairy products.
- D. Consume a high-fat diet.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate dietary recommendation for a client with peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is to avoid spicy foods. Spicy foods can irritate the stomach lining and exacerbate symptoms of PUD. Increasing fiber intake may be beneficial for other gastrointestinal conditions but is not the primary concern for PUD. Avoiding dairy products is not a general recommendation for PUD unless the individual has a specific intolerance. Consuming a high-fat diet can increase the risk of exacerbating PUD symptoms due to the delayed gastric emptying associated with high-fat meals.
2. A client with a diagnosis of pneumonia is experiencing difficulty expectorating thick secretions. What intervention should the nurse implement to assist the client?
- A. Administer antibiotics as prescribed.
- B. Encourage increased fluid intake.
- C. Perform chest physiotherapy.
- D. Provide humidified oxygen.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging increased fluid intake is the appropriate intervention to assist the client with pneumonia who is having difficulty expectorating thick secretions. Adequate hydration helps to thin the secretions, making them easier to cough up. Administering antibiotics (Choice A) is important for treating the infection itself but does not directly address the thick secretions. Chest physiotherapy (Choice C) may be beneficial in some cases but is not the initial intervention for thick secretions. Providing humidified oxygen (Choice D) can help with oxygenation but does not directly address the problem of thick secretions.
3. The client with a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes is being taught about diet management by the nurse. Which statement by the client indicates effective learning?
- A. I should not avoid all carbohydrates
- B. I can eat whatever I want as long as I take my medication
- C. I need to eat regular meals and snacks to maintain my blood sugar levels
- D. I will decrease my intake of sugary foods to prevent low blood sugar
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because eating regular meals and snacks is crucial for maintaining stable blood sugar levels in individuals with diabetes. This approach helps prevent spikes and drops in blood sugar, promoting better management of the condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Avoiding all carbohydrates is not recommended as they are a major energy source and can be part of a balanced diet; eating whatever one wants while relying solely on medication can lead to uncontrolled blood sugar levels and complications; decreasing sugary foods intake can actually contribute to high blood sugar levels rather than preventing low blood sugar.
4. The nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care?
- A. Provide a high-protein diet
- B. Encourage oral fluids
- C. Administer intravenous fluids as prescribed
- D. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention to include in the plan of care for a client with acute pancreatitis is to administer intravenous fluids as prescribed. Intravenous fluids are crucial to maintain hydration and electrolyte balance in clients with acute pancreatitis. Providing a high-protein diet (Choice A) is not recommended initially for clients with acute pancreatitis, as they may need to be kept NPO (nothing by mouth) to rest the pancreas. Encouraging oral fluids (Choice B) may not be appropriate if the client is experiencing severe symptoms and requires intravenous fluids. Monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia (Choice D) is important but not the immediate intervention needed to address the fluid and electrolyte imbalances associated with acute pancreatitis.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic liver disease. Which lab value is most concerning?
- A. Elevated AST and ALT
- B. Decreased albumin level
- C. Elevated bilirubin level
- D. Prolonged PT/INR
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, prolonged PT/INR. In a client with chronic liver disease, a prolonged PT/INR is the most concerning lab value. This indicates impaired liver function, leading to a higher risk of bleeding. Elevated AST and ALT (choice A) are indicators of liver damage but do not directly assess the risk of bleeding. Decreased albumin level (choice B) reflects impaired liver function but is not as directly related to bleeding risk as a prolonged PT/INR. Elevated bilirubin level (choice C) is a sign of liver dysfunction, specifically related to bile metabolism, and while important, it is not as directly associated with bleeding risk as a prolonged PT/INR in the context of chronic liver disease.
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