HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Exam 1
1. Before administration of a stat dose of potassium chloride IV for a client with hypokalemia, what is the most important action for the nurse?
- A. Ensure the IV is flowing freely
- B. Mix the medication thoroughly
- C. Check the client’s electrolyte levels
- D. Obtain a baseline ECG
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most crucial action for the nurse before administering a stat dose of potassium chloride IV to a client with hypokalemia is to ensure the IV is flowing freely. A freely flowing IV is essential to safely and effectively deliver potassium chloride, helping to prevent infusion-related issues. Checking the client's electrolyte levels or obtaining a baseline ECG may be important but are not the most critical actions before administering the medication. Mixing the medication thoroughly is not applicable in this scenario as potassium chloride is typically provided ready to use.
2. When assisting a client to obtain a sputum specimen, the nurse observes the client cough and spit a large amount of frothy saliva in the specimen collection cup. What action should the nurse implement next?
- A. Advise the client that suctioning will be used to obtain another specimen
- B. Re-instruct the client in coughing techniques to obtain another specimen
- C. Provide the client a glass of water and mouthwash to rinse the mouth
- D. Label the container and place the container in a biohazard transport bag
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After observing the client cough and produce frothy saliva in the collection cup, the nurse should provide the client with a glass of water and mouthwash to rinse the mouth. This action helps clear the mouth of contaminants, ensuring a more accurate sputum specimen for diagnostic testing. Option A is incorrect because suctioning is not the appropriate next step in this situation. Option B is unnecessary as re-instructing the client in coughing techniques may not address the immediate issue of contaminated saliva in the specimen. Option D is premature since labeling and transporting the container should only be done after obtaining a valid specimen.
3. A client begins taking an antidepressant drug during the second day of hospitalization. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care while the client is taking the antidepressant?
- A. Appetite
- B. Mood
- C. Withdrawal
- D. Energy level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring the client's mood is essential when starting an antidepressant to assess for any changes or adverse effects related to the medication. Changes in mood can indicate the effectiveness of the antidepressant or potential side effects. Assessing appetite (Choice A) is important but not as crucial as monitoring mood in this context. Withdrawal symptoms (Choice C) are more relevant when discontinuing antidepressants rather than starting them. Energy level (Choice D) can be influenced by various factors and may not directly reflect the client's response to the antidepressant.
4. A client with asthma is prescribed an albuterol inhaler. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Use the inhaler only during an asthma attack
- B. Rinse your mouth after using the inhaler
- C. Shake the inhaler before each use
- D. Exhale fully before inhaling the medication
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide is to shake the inhaler before each use. Shaking the inhaler ensures proper mixing of the medication before administration, which is crucial for its effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because albuterol inhalers are often used as a preventive measure, not just during asthma attacks. Choice B is a good practice to prevent oral fungal infections associated with inhaled corticosteroids, not typically with albuterol. Choice D is important for proper inhaler technique, but the primary step before inhaling is shaking the inhaler to ensure the medication is well mixed.
5. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory finding is most indicative of this condition?
- A. Serum glucose of 180 mg/dL
- B. Blood pH of 7.30
- C. Positive urine ketones
- D. Serum bicarbonate of 25 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Positive urine ketones. In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the body breaks down fat for energy due to a lack of insulin, leading to ketone production. Positive urine ketones are a hallmark laboratory finding in DKA as they directly reflect the presence of ketosis. Choice A, serum glucose of 180 mg/dL, may be elevated in DKA, but it is not specific to this condition. Choice B, blood pH of 7.30, often shows acidosis in DKA, but urine ketones are more specific to the presence of ketosis. Choice D, serum bicarbonate of 25 mEq/L, would typically be low in DKA due to acidosis rather than elevated.
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