Nursing Elites

1. A client with foul-smelling drainage from an incision on the upper left arm is admitted with a suspected methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which nursing interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Send wound drainage for culture and sensitivity.
• B. Institute contact precautions for staff and visitors.
• C. Use standard precautions and wear a mask.
• D. Monitor the client's white blood cell count.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When dealing with a client suspected of having MRSA, the nurse should implement contact precautions to prevent the spread of infection. This includes using gowns and gloves, along with following proper hand hygiene practices. Sending wound drainage for culture and sensitivity may be necessary for diagnostic purposes, but it is not directly related to preventing the spread of infection in this case. Using standard precautions and wearing a mask are not sufficient when dealing with MRSA; contact precautions are specifically required to prevent transmission. Monitoring the client's white blood cell count is important in assessing infection status but is not a primary intervention to prevent the spread of MRSA.

2. A client with hypothyroidism is taking levothyroxine (Synthroid). Which symptom should prompt the nurse to notify the healthcare provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Nervousness and tremors
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Nervousness and tremors. These symptoms may indicate hyperthyroidism resulting from excessive dosing of levothyroxine. Weight gain (Choice A) is a common symptom of hypothyroidism and may indicate undertreatment or inadequate dosing. Bradycardia (Choice B) is a symptom of hypothyroidism and may improve with levothyroxine therapy; it does not typically indicate an urgent need for healthcare provider notification. Fatigue (Choice D) is a symptom of hypothyroidism and can persist even with levothyroxine treatment, so it is not a symptom that would require immediate notification of the healthcare provider.

3. Which structures are located in the subcutaneous layer of the skin?

• A. Sebaceous and sweat glands
• B. Melanin and keratin
• C. Sensory receptors and hair follicles
• D. Adipose cells and blood vessels

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Adipose cells and blood vessels. The subcutaneous layer, also known as the hypodermis, primarily consists of adipose (fat) tissue and blood vessels. Adipose tissue provides insulation, energy storage, and cushioning, while blood vessels supply nutrients and oxygen. Sebaceous and sweat glands are located in the dermis, which is the layer beneath the epidermis. Melanin and keratin are components of the epidermis, responsible for skin color and waterproofing, respectively. Sensory receptors and hair follicles are found in the dermis and extend into the subcutaneous layer but are not exclusive to it.

4. Based on the documentation in the medical record, which action should the nurse implement next?

• A. Administer the rubella vaccine subcutaneously
• B. Observe the mother breastfeeding her infant
• C. Call the nursery for the infant's blood type result
• D. Administer Vicodin one tablet for pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to observe the mother breastfeeding her infant. This action is essential to ensure that the infant is feeding well and to assess maternal-infant bonding. Administering the rubella vaccine subcutaneously (Option A) is not the immediate priority in this scenario as assessing breastfeeding is more crucial. Calling the nursery for the infant's blood type result (Option C) is premature and not the next appropriate step, as it does not address the immediate needs of the newborn. Administering Vicodin one tablet for pain (Option D) is not indicated without further assessment or indication of pain, making it an incorrect choice at this time.

5. A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. Which potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Thiazide diuretics commonly cause potassium loss, which can lead to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is essential when a client is taking thiazide diuretics to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is an elevated level of potassium, which is not typically associated with thiazide diuretics. Hypernatremia (choice B) is an elevated level of sodium, and hypoglycemia (choice D) is low blood sugar, neither of which are directly linked to thiazide diuretic use.

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