how should the nurse assess for cyanosis in a client with dark skin who is in respiratory distress
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 2 Exam 1

1. How should the nurse assess for cyanosis in a client with dark skin who is in respiratory distress?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Observing the lips and mucous membranes provides a reliable indicator of cyanosis in clients with dark skin tones. Choice A is incorrect because cyanosis can be assessed in clients with dark skin by observing other body areas. Choice B is incorrect as blanching the soles of the feet is not a relevant method for assessing cyanosis. Choice D is incorrect as cyanosis is not typically seen in the sclera in clients with dark skin.

2. Before administration of a stat dose of potassium chloride IV for a client with hypokalemia, what is the most important action for the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most crucial action for the nurse before administering a stat dose of potassium chloride IV to a client with hypokalemia is to ensure the IV is flowing freely. A freely flowing IV is essential to safely and effectively deliver potassium chloride, helping to prevent infusion-related issues. Checking the client's electrolyte levels or obtaining a baseline ECG may be important but are not the most critical actions before administering the medication. Mixing the medication thoroughly is not applicable in this scenario as potassium chloride is typically provided ready to use.

3. A client comes to the antepartal clinic and tells the nurse that she is 6 weeks pregnant. Which sign is she most likely to report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amenorrhea is the absence of menstrual periods and is a common early sign of pregnancy, typically reported by a client who is 6 weeks pregnant. Decreased sexual libido (Choice A) may or may not be experienced in early pregnancy, but it is not as specific as amenorrhea. Quickening (Choice C) refers to fetal movements felt by the mother, which usually occurs around 18-20 weeks of pregnancy, not at 6 weeks. Nocturia (Choice D) is waking up at night to urinate and is not typically associated with early pregnancy.

4. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is admitted with symptoms of dyspnea and fatigue. What initial intervention should the nurse prepare to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct initial intervention for a client with chronic heart failure presenting with dyspnea and fatigue is oxygen therapy. Oxygen therapy can help relieve dyspnea and improve oxygen saturation levels, which are crucial in managing heart failure exacerbations. Administering IV diuretics may be necessary later to address fluid overload, but oxygen therapy takes precedence in addressing the immediate respiratory distress. Bed rest and dietary consultation are important aspects of care for heart failure patients, but in this scenario, oxygen therapy is the priority to improve the client's respiratory status.

5. The healthcare professional is developing a care plan for a client with depression. What should be included in the plan?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A comprehensive care plan for a client with depression should include multiple components to address various aspects of health. Regular physical activity can help improve mood and overall well-being. Scheduled sleep patterns are essential as sleep disturbances are common in depression and can worsen symptoms. Social interaction with family and friends provides emotional support and reduces feelings of isolation. Therefore, including all these aspects in the care plan can help support the client's recovery. Choice D, 'All of the above,' is the correct answer because all the options are important components of a holistic care plan for depression. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these elements plays a crucial role in managing depression.

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