Nursing Elites

1. A client who is diagnosed with schizophrenia is admitted to the hospital. The nurse assesses the client's mental status. Which assessment finding is most characteristic of a client with schizophrenia?

• A. Mood swings.
• B. Extreme sadness.
• C. Manipulative behavior.
• D. Flat affect.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Flat affect. Flat affect, which is a lack of emotional expression, is highly characteristic of schizophrenia. Mood swings (choice A) are more indicative of mood disorders rather than schizophrenia. Extreme sadness (choice B) could be seen in depression but is not as specific to schizophrenia. Manipulative behavior (choice C) is not a defining characteristic of schizophrenia; it may be seen in various psychiatric conditions but is not the most characteristic feature of schizophrenia.

2. A male client turns over a table in the dayroom of a psychiatric unit and threatens to throw a chair at another client. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Calmly approach the client and remove the chair from the client.
• B. Obtain staff assistance to help diffuse the escalating situation.
• C. Offer feedback about the client's behavior.
• D. Summon the hospital security guards as a 'show of force.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a situation where a client is displaying aggressive behavior, the most important action for the nurse to implement is to obtain staff assistance to help diffuse the escalating situation. This approach ensures the safety of all individuals involved and prevents the situation from escalating further. Calmly approaching the client and removing the chair directly could agitate the client further and pose a risk to the nurse. Offering feedback about the client's behavior may not address the immediate safety concerns. Summoning hospital security guards as a 'show of force' should be a last resort after other de-escalation attempts have failed, as it may further provoke the client.

3. Which client information indicates the need for the nurse to use the CAGE questionnaire during the admission interview?

• A. Reports difficulties with short-term memory since experiencing a traumatic brain injury.
• B. Client's medication history includes frequent use of antidepressants.
• C. Describes self as a social drinker who consumes alcoholic beverages daily.
• D. Medical history includes that the client was recently sexually assaulted.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Describing oneself as a social drinker who consumes alcoholic beverages daily raises concerns about potential alcohol abuse issues. The CAGE questionnaire is a tool used to screen for alcohol use disorder. Choice A is incorrect as memory difficulties post-traumatic brain injury do not directly indicate a need for the CAGE questionnaire. Choice B is incorrect as the use of antidepressants, while important to note, does not specifically warrant the use of the CAGE questionnaire. Choice D is incorrect as a recent sexual assault, while significant, does not directly relate to the need for alcohol abuse screening using the CAGE questionnaire.

4. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. What is the most important intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement during the first 24 hours of hospitalization?

• A. Encourage the client to eat small, frequent meals.
• B. Monitor the client's vital signs and weight.
• C. Establish a trusting relationship with the client.
• D. Provide emotional support to the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's vital signs and weight. This intervention is crucial in assessing the severity of the client's condition and planning appropriate care. Vital signs and weight monitoring help in evaluating the client's physiological status and identifying any immediate concerns related to anorexia nervosa. Choices A, C, and D are important aspects of care for a client with anorexia nervosa; however, during the initial 24 hours of hospitalization, monitoring vital signs and weight takes precedence as it provides essential data for the client's ongoing management and treatment.

5. A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action will the nurse initiate?

• A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor closely.
• B. Immediately transfer the client to the ICU.
• C. Report the symptoms to the charge nurse and document in the client's chart.
• D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of such medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a severe and life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs. The major symptoms include fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and encephalopathy. Respiratory failure, cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, and/or renal failure can lead to death. This is an emergency situation requiring immediate critical care, thus the correct action is to transfer the client to the ICU (B). Seizure precautions (A) are not relevant in this scenario. Merely describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them (C) or taking no action assuming these are common side effects (D) fail to address the critical nature of the situation and the urgency of immediate intervention.

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