Nursing Elites

1. Which action should the nurse implement during the termination phase of the nurse-client relationship?

• A. Identify new problem areas.
• B. Confront changes not completed.
• C. Explore the client's past in depth.
• D. Help summarize accomplishments.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the termination phase of the nurse-client relationship, it is essential for the nurse to help summarize accomplishments. This action provides closure by reflecting on the progress and goals achieved during treatment. It reinforces the positive aspects of the therapeutic relationship and helps the client acknowledge their growth and achievements. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Identifying new problem areas is not appropriate during termination, as the focus should be on closure. Confronting changes not completed may create tension and disrupt the positive closure process. Exploring the client's past in depth is more suitable for earlier stages of the therapeutic relationship, not during termination.

2. The nurse observes a client who is admitted to the mental health unit and identifies that the client is talking continuously, using words that rhyme but that have no context or relationship with one topic to the next in the conversation. This client's behavior and thought processes are consistent with which syndrome?

• A. Dementia
• B. Depression
• C. Schizophrenia
• D. Chronic brain syndrome

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client is demonstrating symptoms of schizophrenia, such as disorganized speech that may include word salad (a type of communication that mixes real and imaginary words in no logical order), incoherent speech, and clanging (rhyming). Dementia (Choice A) is characterized by memory loss and cognitive decline, not by disorganized speech. Depression (Choice B) typically presents with persistent feelings of sadness and loss of interest, not disorganized speech. Chronic brain syndrome (Choice D) is a vague term and does not specifically describe the symptoms mentioned in the scenario.

3. An adolescent with major depressive disorder has been taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) for the past 12 days. Which assessment finding requires immediate follow-up?

• A. Describes life as without purpose.
• B. Exhibits an increase in sweating.
• C. States is often fatigued and drowsy.
• D. Complains of nausea and loss of appetite.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Expressing that life is without purpose can indicate deepening depression or suicidal ideation, which requires immediate attention. While sweating, fatigue, drowsiness, nausea, and loss of appetite can be side effects of duloxetine (Cymbalta), they do not indicate the same level of urgency as a statement suggesting deepening depression or suicidal ideation.

4. A middle-aged adult with major depressive disorder suffers from psychomotor retardation, hypersomnia, and low motivation. Which intervention is likely to be most effective in returning this client to a normal level of functioning?

• A. Provide education on methods to enhance sleep.
• B. Teach the client to develop a plan for daily structured activities.
• C. Suggest that the client develop a list of pleasurable activities.
• D. Encourage the client to exercise.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Teaching the client to develop a plan for daily structured activities is the most effective intervention in this case. Creating a routine can help improve motivation and provide a sense of accomplishment, aiding in the recovery process. Option A, providing education on methods to enhance sleep, may address hypersomnia but does not directly target psychomotor retardation and low motivation. Option C, suggesting the client develop a list of pleasurable activities, may not address the need for structure and routine. Option D, encouraging the client to exercise, is beneficial but may not be as effective as creating a structured daily plan to address the client's specific symptoms.

5. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with haloperidol (Haldol). The client reports feeling restless and unable to sit still. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Instruct the client to take deep breaths and relax.
• B. Assess the client for signs of akathisia.
• C. Encourage the client to engage in physical activity.
• D. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Restlessness and inability to sit still are signs of akathisia, an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic medications. The nurse should first assess the client for signs of akathisia by observing their movements and behavior. Assessing for akathisia is crucial to differentiate it from other conditions and to intervene appropriately. Instructing the client to relax or engage in physical activity may not address the underlying issue of akathisia. Administering lorazepam should not be the first action as it may mask the symptoms of akathisia temporarily without addressing the root cause.

Similar Questions