Nursing Elites

1. A male client with schizophrenia tells the nurse that the FBI is monitoring his phone calls. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Let's talk about your feelings of being monitored.
• B. There is no evidence that the FBI is monitoring your calls.
• C. Why do you think the FBI is interested in your phone calls?
• D. I can assure you that your phone calls are not being monitored.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to choose A: 'Let's talk about your feelings of being monitored.' This response shows empathy and encourages the client to express his feelings. Engaging the client in a discussion about his feelings can help address underlying fears without directly challenging the delusion. Choice B is incorrect because directly denying the delusion may lead to increased distrust or agitation in the client. Choice C may come across as confrontational, which can exacerbate the client's paranoia. Choice D offers a false sense of assurance and does not address the client's concerns effectively.

2. A female client on the psychiatric unit tells the nurse that she feels like ending her life because she can no longer deal with her depression. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Stay with the client and ensure her safety.
• B. Inform the client that she is safe in the hospital.
• C. Document the client's statements in her medical record.
• D. Encourage the client to join a group therapy session.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to stay with the client and ensure her safety. Ensuring the client's safety is the top priority when a client expresses suicidal ideation. Staying with the client can help prevent self-harm while further assessment and interventions are arranged. Choice B is incorrect because simply informing the client that she is safe in the hospital does not address the immediate need for safety. Choice C is incorrect as while documentation is important, it is not the priority when a client's safety is at risk. Choice D is also incorrect as encouraging the client to join a group therapy session is not appropriate when the client is in crisis and expressing suicidal thoughts.

3. A female client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What is the most therapeutic response by the nurse?

• A. I don't hear any voices. They must be in your head.
• B. What are the voices telling you to do?
• C. You need to ignore the voices and focus on reality.
• D. I know the voices are real to you, but I don't hear them.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acknowledging the client's experience while gently presenting reality can help build trust and provide reassurance without reinforcing the hallucination.

4. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who has been prescribed lithium carbonate. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide?

• A. Take the medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
• B. Do not change your salt intake while on this medication.
• C. Drink plenty of water and maintain a consistent salt intake.
• D. Avoid excessive intake of caffeine while on this medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important instruction for a client prescribed lithium carbonate is not to change their salt intake. Alterations in sodium levels can impact lithium levels, leading to an increased risk of toxicity. Choice A is not crucial for lithium carbonate administration. While hydration is essential, maintaining a consistent salt intake is more critical than just increasing water intake (Choice C). Although caffeine can interact with lithium, it is not as important as maintaining a consistent salt intake (Choice D).

5. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an SSRI. After one week, the client reports feeling no improvement in mood. What is the best response by the RN?

• A. It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.
• B. We may need to switch to a different medication.
• C. You should feel better by now, let's discuss this with your doctor.
• D. Maybe you are not taking the medication as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.' This response is appropriate because SSRI and other antidepressants often require several weeks to exhibit improvement in mood. It is crucial to educate the client about this delay to manage expectations and promote adherence to the medication regimen. Choice B is incorrect as switching medications prematurely is not typically recommended after just one week. Choice C is incorrect because it sets unrealistic expectations for immediate improvement. Choice D is incorrect as it may come across as accusatory and should not be the initial response.

Similar Questions