HESI LPN
Mental Health HESI Practice Questions
1. A male client with schizophrenia tells the nurse that the FBI is monitoring his phone calls. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. Let's talk about your feelings of being monitored.
- B. There is no evidence that the FBI is monitoring your calls.
- C. Why do you think the FBI is interested in your phone calls?
- D. I can assure you that your phone calls are not being monitored.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is to choose A: 'Let's talk about your feelings of being monitored.' This response shows empathy and encourages the client to express his feelings. Engaging the client in a discussion about his feelings can help address underlying fears without directly challenging the delusion. Choice B is incorrect because directly denying the delusion may lead to increased distrust or agitation in the client. Choice C may come across as confrontational, which can exacerbate the client's paranoia. Choice D offers a false sense of assurance and does not address the client's concerns effectively.
2. The nurse is taking a history for a female client who is requesting a routine female exam. Which assessment finding requires follow-up?
- A. Menstruation onset at age 9.
- B. Contraceptive method includes condoms only.
- C. Menstrual cycle occurs every 35 days.
- D. 'Black-out' after one drink last night on a date.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Experiencing a 'black-out' after consuming only one drink is highly unusual and may indicate the client was drugged, necessitating immediate follow-up. Menstruation onset at age 9 and a menstrual cycle occurring every 35 days, although on the outer ranges of 'average,' are within acceptable norms. Relying solely on condoms as a contraceptive method increases the risk of conception.
3. A client is responding to auditory hallucinations and shakes a fist at a nurse and says, 'Back off, witch!' The nurse follows the client into the day room. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Sit down in a chair near the client.
- B. Position self within an arm's length of the client.
- C. Ensure that there is physical space between the nurse and client.
- D. Move to a position that allows the client to be closest to the room's door.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In situations where a client is responding to auditory hallucinations and displaying aggressive behavior, it is crucial for the nurse to ensure physical space between themselves and the client. This action can help de-escalate the situation and prevent any potential harm to both the nurse and the client. Sitting down near the client (Choice A) may escalate the situation by invading the client's personal space. Positioning oneself within an arm's length of the client (Choice B) may increase the risk of physical confrontation. Moving closer to the room's door (Choice D) may not be appropriate as it can block the client's exit route and escalate the situation further. Therefore, ensuring physical space between the nurse and the client (Choice C) is the most appropriate action to promote safety and prevent escalation.
4. A female client with anorexia nervosa is admitted to the hospital. What is the priority assessment for the nurse to perform?
- A. Assess the client's body image perception.
- B. Monitor the client's electrolyte levels.
- C. Evaluate the client's exercise habits.
- D. Assess the client's relationship with her family.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's electrolyte levels. In clients with anorexia nervosa, electrolyte imbalances can lead to serious, potentially life-threatening complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Assessing body image perception (choice A) is important but not the priority when compared to monitoring electrolyte levels. Evaluating exercise habits (choice C) and assessing the client's relationship with her family (choice D) are also important aspects of care but do not take precedence over monitoring electrolyte levels in a client with anorexia nervosa.
5. The nurse plans to help an 18-year-old female intellectually disabled client ambulate on the first postoperative day after an appendectomy. When the nurse tells the client it is time to get out of bed, the client becomes angry and tells the nurse, 'Get out of here! I'll get up when I'm ready!' Which response is best for the nurse to make?
- A. Your healthcare provider has prescribed ambulation on the first postoperative day.
- B. You must ambulate to avoid complications that could cause more discomfort than ambulating.
- C. I know how you feel. You're angry about having to ambulate, but this will help you get well.
- D. I'll be back in 30 minutes to help you get out of bed and walk around the room.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: (D) provides a 'cooling off' period, is firm, direct, non-threatening, and avoids arguing with the client. (A) is avoiding responsibility by referring to the healthcare provider. (B) is trying to reason with an intellectually disabled client and is threatening the client with 'complications.' (C) is telling the client how she feels (angry), and the nurse does not really 'know' how this client feels, unless the nurse is also intellectually disabled and has also just had an appendectomy.
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