Nursing Elites

1. A male client with schizophrenia tells the nurse that the FBI is monitoring his phone calls. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Let's talk about your feelings of being monitored.
• B. There is no evidence that the FBI is monitoring your calls.
• C. Why do you think the FBI is interested in your phone calls?
• D. I can assure you that your phone calls are not being monitored.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to choose A: 'Let's talk about your feelings of being monitored.' This response shows empathy and encourages the client to express his feelings. Engaging the client in a discussion about his feelings can help address underlying fears without directly challenging the delusion. Choice B is incorrect because directly denying the delusion may lead to increased distrust or agitation in the client. Choice C may come across as confrontational, which can exacerbate the client's paranoia. Choice D offers a false sense of assurance and does not address the client's concerns effectively.

2. During the manic phase of bipolar disorder, what is the priority nursing intervention for a female client who has not slept for the past 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors?

• A. Encourage the client to participate in a quiet activity.
• B. Provide a safe environment and limit stimuli.
• C. Administer a sedative to help the client sleep.
• D. Discuss the consequences of her risky behaviors.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct priority nursing intervention for a female client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder, who has not slept for 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors, is to provide a safe environment and limit stimuli. This approach is crucial to prevent harm to the client and others. Encouraging a quiet activity (Choice A) may not effectively address the need for safety during the manic phase. Administering a sedative (Choice C) should be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider and does not address the immediate safety concerns. Discussing consequences of risky behaviors (Choice D) may not be effective during the manic phase when the client's judgment is impaired.

3. A client with major depressive disorder is started on fluoxetine (Prozac). What should the nurse include in the client's discharge teaching?

• A. It may take 4-6 weeks for the medication to be effective.
• B. You should take this medication at bedtime.
• C. Avoid consuming dairy products while taking this medication.
• D. You can stop taking the medication once you feel better.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "It may take 4-6 weeks for the medication to be effective." SSRIs like fluoxetine typically take 4-6 weeks to reach their full effect, so clients should be informed to expect a gradual improvement in symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because fluoxetine is usually taken in the morning to prevent sleep disturbances. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific need to avoid consuming dairy products while taking fluoxetine. Choice D is incorrect because clients should never stop taking antidepressants abruptly, as it can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition.

4. A client who has been admitted to the psychiatric unit tells the nurse, 'My problems are so bad that no one can help me.' Which response is best for the nurse to make?

• A. How can I help?
• B. Things probably aren't as bad as they seem right now.
• C. Let's talk about what is right with your life.
• D. I hear how miserable you are, but things will get better soon.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering self shows empathy and caring (A) and is the best choice provided. (B) dismisses the client's feelings and reality. (C) avoids addressing the client's concerns directly and may come across as invalidating. Although (D) starts with acknowledging the client's feelings, the second part about things getting better soon can be perceived as offering false reassurance, which is not recommended in therapeutic communication.

5. The RN is preparing to administer a prescribed dose of haloperidol (Haldol) to a client with schizophrenia. The client begins to exhibit muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status. What action should the RN take first?

• A. Administer the haloperidol as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's vital signs closely.
• C. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider.
• D. Give the client an antipyretic for the fever.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status are symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications. The RN should hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider immediately. Option A is incorrect because administering more of the medication can worsen the symptoms. Option B is not the first priority when the client is experiencing symptoms of NMS. Option D is incorrect as addressing the fever alone does not address the underlying issue of NMS caused by haloperidol.

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