HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Questions
1. A client with depression is prescribed an SSRI. The client asks, 'Why do I need to take this medication every day?' What is the best response by the nurse?
- A. This medication will help balance the chemicals in your brain.
- B. This medication needs to be taken regularly to be effective.
- C. This medication will start working immediately to improve your mood.
- D. You should take this medication only when you feel sad or depressed.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Explaining that the medication may take several weeks to take full effect helps manage the client's expectations and encourages adherence to the prescribed treatment.
2. What information should the nurse include in the client's teaching about starting a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for major depressive disorder?
- A. It may take several weeks for the medication to take effect.
- B. You can stop taking the medication once you feel better.
- C. Avoid foods high in tyramine while on this medication.
- D. You should expect an immediate improvement in mood.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "It may take several weeks for the medication to take effect." SSRIs typically take several weeks to reach their full effect, and it's important to set realistic expectations for the client. Choice B is incorrect because stopping the medication abruptly can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of depression. Choice C is unrelated to SSRI therapy and pertains more to MAOIs. Choice D is incorrect as SSRIs do not provide immediate improvement in mood; rather, they require time to exert their therapeutic effects.
3. A client with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder is prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). What is the most important side effect for the LPN/LVN to monitor?
- A. Weight gain.
- B. Sexual dysfunction.
- C. Nausea.
- D. Constipation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sexual dysfunction. When monitoring a client taking fluoxetine (Prozac), the LPN/LVN should prioritize observing for sexual dysfunction. This side effect is crucial to monitor as it can significantly impact the client's quality of life and may affect their adherence to the medication. Weight gain (choice A) is a possible side effect of fluoxetine but is not as critical as sexual dysfunction in terms of monitoring. Nausea (choice C) and constipation (choice D) are common side effects of fluoxetine, but they are generally less concerning compared to the impact of sexual dysfunction on the client's well-being and treatment compliance.
4. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).
- B. Monitor the client's vital signs.
- C. Place the client on seizure precautions.
- D. Encourage the client to express feelings about withdrawal.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When caring for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal, the first intervention the nurse should implement is to monitor the client's vital signs. Vital sign monitoring is crucial to assess for any potential complications such as hypertension, tachycardia, fever, or other signs of autonomic hyperactivity. Administering medication like lorazepam (Ativan) would come after assessing the vital signs to determine the need for pharmacological intervention. Placing the client on seizure precautions is important, but assessing vital signs takes precedence to ensure immediate safety. Encouraging the client to express feelings about withdrawal is a supportive intervention but does not address the immediate physiological risk associated with alcohol withdrawal.
5. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) spends several hours a day arranging and rearranging items in their room. What is the most therapeutic nursing intervention?
- A. Distract the client with another activity.
- B. Allow the client to continue the behavior.
- C. Set a time limit for the behavior.
- D. Encourage the client to verbalize their feelings.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Encouraging the client to verbalize their feelings is the most therapeutic intervention for a client with OCD spending excessive time on compulsive behaviors. By expressing their feelings, the client can explore the underlying anxiety that drives the compulsion. This intervention also provides an opportunity for the nurse to offer support and help the client develop coping strategies.\n Choice A, distracting the client with another activity, may provide temporary relief but does not address the root cause of the behavior.\n Choice B, allowing the client to continue the behavior, does not promote therapeutic progress and may perpetuate the compulsion.\n Choice C, setting a time limit for the behavior, may create additional stress for the client and does not address the underlying emotional issues associated with OCD.
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