a client with depression is prescribed an ssri the client asks why do i need to take this medication every day what is the best response by the nurse
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HESI Mental Health Practice Questions

1. A client with depression is prescribed an SSRI. The client asks, 'Why do I need to take this medication every day?' What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Explaining that the medication may take several weeks to take full effect helps manage the client's expectations and encourages adherence to the prescribed treatment.

2. A client diagnosed with undifferentiated schizophrenia is being discharged on aripiprazole (Abilify) 5 mg every night. When developing the teaching plan about the most common adverse effects, which of the following should the nurse include? Select one that does not apply.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Torticollis. Common side effects of aripiprazole include headaches, mild anxiety, and insomnia. These side effects are manageable during treatment. Torticollis is not a common adverse effect associated with aripiprazole and is more commonly seen with other medications or conditions. Therefore, the nurse should not include torticollis in the teaching plan about the most common adverse effects of aripiprazole.

3. A client who has been admitted to the psychiatric unit tells the nurse, 'My problems are so bad that no one can help me.' Which response is best for the nurse to make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering self shows empathy and caring (A) and is the best choice provided. (B) dismisses the client's feelings and reality. (C) avoids addressing the client's concerns directly and may come across as invalidating. Although (D) starts with acknowledging the client's feelings, the second part about things getting better soon can be perceived as offering false reassurance, which is not recommended in therapeutic communication.

4. A homeless person who is in the manic phase of bipolar disorder is admitted to the mental health unit. Which laboratory finding obtained on admission is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased thyroid stimulating hormone level. Hyperthyroidism causes an increased level of serum thyroid hormones (T3 and T4), which inhibit the release of TSH. In this case, a decreased TSH level can indicate hyperthyroidism, which can present with manic behavior. Elevated liver function profile (B) is not directly related to the manic phase of bipolar disorder. Increased white blood cell count (C) typically indicates an infection or inflammation, not directly related to the manic phase. Decreased hematocrit and hemoglobin levels (D) may suggest anemia but are not as crucial in the context of a manic phase of bipolar disorder.

5. A teenaged client, a heroin addict, is admitted to the unit for detoxification. What intervention is most important for the nurse to initiate during the first 24 hours after admission?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing intake and output is crucial during the first 24 hours after admission for detoxification. This helps the nurse monitor the client's hydration status and kidney function as the body goes through withdrawal from heroin. Option A is incorrect because joining a support group is beneficial but may not be the priority in the initial phase of detoxification. Option C, monitoring for wheezing and apnea, is important but not the most critical intervention during the first 24 hours. Option D, limiting visitors to family members only, is not directly related to the immediate needs of assessing intake and output.

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