HESI LPN
Mental Health HESI Practice Questions
1. A client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed alprazolam (Xanax). What is the most important teaching point for the nurse to include?
- A. Take this medication at the first sign of anxiety.
- B. Do not stop taking this medication abruptly.
- C. You may experience weight gain while taking this medication.
- D. This medication may cause vivid dreams.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important teaching point for a client prescribed alprazolam is not to stop taking the medication abruptly. Abruptly stopping alprazolam, a benzodiazepine, can lead to withdrawal symptoms. It is crucial to taper off the medication under medical supervision to prevent adverse effects. Choice A is incorrect because taking the medication at the first sign of anxiety is not the key teaching point. Choice C is incorrect because weight gain is not a common side effect of alprazolam. Choice D is incorrect because vivid dreams are not a significant concern compared to the risks of abrupt discontinuation of the medication.
2. A client's medication sheet contains a prescription for sertraline (Zoloft). To ensure safe administration of the medication, a nurse would administer the dose:
- A. On an empty stomach
- B. At the same time each evening
- C. Evenly spaced around the clock
- D. As needed when the client complains of depression
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'At the same time each evening.' Sertraline should be administered at the same time each evening to maintain steady drug levels and effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because sertraline can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as sertraline does not need to be spaced around the clock. Choice D is incorrect as sertraline is a scheduled medication and should not be taken on an as-needed basis for complaints of depression.
3. A client is admitted to a medical nursing unit with a diagnosis of acute blindness. Many tests are performed, and there seems to be no organic reason why this client cannot see. The client became blind after witnessing a hit-and-run car accident, when a family of three was killed. A LPN/LVN suspects that the client may be experiencing a:
- A. Psychosis
- B. Repression
- C. Conversion Disorder
- D. Dissociative Disorder
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the client's acute blindness without any organic cause following a traumatic event indicates a case of Conversion Disorder. Conversion Disorder involves the manifestation of physical symptoms due to psychological stressors. Psychosis (choice A) involves a loss of contact with reality, which is not evident here. Repression (choice B) is a defense mechanism that involves unconsciously blocking out thoughts. Dissociative Disorder (choice D) involves disruptions in memory, awareness, identity, or perception, which is not the primary issue in this case.
4. The nurse is planning the care for a 32-year-old male client with acute depression. Which nursing intervention would be best in helping this client deal with his depression?
- A. Ensure that the client's day is filled with group activities.
- B. Assist the client in exploring feelings of shame, anger, and guilt.
- C. Allow the client to initiate and determine activities of daily living.
- D. Encourage the client to explore the rationale for his depression.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assisting the client in exploring feelings of shame, anger, and guilt (B) is the most appropriate intervention for acute depression as it helps address core emotions that may be contributing to the condition. Focusing on these emotions can aid the client in processing and coping with their feelings. Ensuring that the client's day is filled with group activities (A) might overwhelm the client, as they may not be ready for social interactions during this sensitive time. Allowing the client to initiate and determine activities of daily living (C) is more suitable for chronic cases where the client needs to regain autonomy. Encouraging the client to explore the rationale for his depression (D) is less effective in acute cases, as the focus should be on immediate emotional support and understanding rather than cognitive analysis.
5. A 20-year-old female client with schizophrenia is scheduled to receive risperidone (Risperdal) 2mg at bedtime. When the nurse attempts to administer the medication, the client states, 'I am not going to take that medicine, and you can't make me.' What action should the nurse take?
- A. Administer the medication via a nasogastric tube.
- B. Substitute an injectable form of the medication.
- C. Encourage the client to take the medicine because it will help her sleep.
- D. Document in the client's record that the medication was refused.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action for the nurse to take is to respect the client's autonomy and decision-making capacity. It's crucial to document the medication refusal accurately in the client's record. Administering the medication via a nasogastric tube or substituting it with an injectable form would violate the client's right to refuse treatment and should only be considered in extreme cases after consulting with the healthcare team. Encouraging the client to take the medication because it will help her sleep disregards her autonomy and choice in the matter.
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