Nursing Elites

1. An elderly client was prescribed Ativan 1 mg three times a day to help calm her anxiety after her husband's death. The next day the client calls her daughter asking when she is picking her up to go to the graveside. The client says she has been walking up and down the driveway for the past hour waiting for her daughter. Noting the client's agitation, hyperactivity, and insistence, the daughter calls the nurse to report her mother's behavior. What should the nurse suspect?

• A. The client is manic and may need a sleeping pill
• B. The client is experiencing a medication interaction and should go to the ED
• C. The client is experiencing a paradoxical reaction to the Ativan and should stop the new medication immediately
• D. The client is overcome by grief and probably needs an antidepressant

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A paradoxical reaction to Ativan, where the drug causes opposite effects such as increased agitation and hyperactivity, should prompt immediate cessation of the medication. In this scenario, the client was prescribed Ativan to help calm her anxiety, but instead, she is displaying symptoms of increased agitation and hyperactivity, indicating a paradoxical reaction. Choice A is incorrect because the symptoms described do not align with mania. Choice B is incorrect as there is no mention of a medication interaction. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of a paradoxical reaction rather than overwhelming grief.

2. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) spends hours checking and rechecking the locks on the doors. What is the best nursing intervention?

• A. Allow the client to continue the behavior to reduce anxiety.
• B. Encourage the client to discuss the thoughts and feelings behind the behavior.
• C. Prevent the client from checking the locks to break the cycle.
• D. Schedule specific times for the client to check the locks.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best nursing intervention for a client with OCD who spends excessive time checking locks is to encourage the client to discuss the thoughts and feelings behind the behavior. By exploring the underlying anxiety and triggers, the client can gain insight and work towards behavior modification. Choice A is incorrect because enabling the behavior does not address the underlying issues. Choice C is incorrect as it may lead to increased anxiety and distress. Choice D is incorrect as it does not address the root cause of the behavior.

3. The nurse plans to help an 18-year-old female intellectually disabled client ambulate on the first postoperative day after an appendectomy. When the nurse tells the client it is time to get out of bed, the client becomes angry and tells the nurse, 'Get out of here! I'll get up when I'm ready!' Which response is best for the nurse to make?

• A. Your healthcare provider has prescribed ambulation on the first postoperative day.
• B. You must ambulate to avoid complications that could cause more discomfort than ambulating.
• C. I know how you feel. You're angry about having to ambulate, but this will help you get well.
• D. I'll be back in 30 minutes to help you get out of bed and walk around the room.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: (D) provides a 'cooling off' period, is firm, direct, non-threatening, and avoids arguing with the client. (A) is avoiding responsibility by referring to the healthcare provider. (B) is trying to reason with an intellectually disabled client and is threatening the client with 'complications.' (C) is telling the client how she feels (angry), and the nurse does not really 'know' how this client feels, unless the nurse is also intellectually disabled and has also just had an appendectomy.

4. A female client on the psychiatric unit tells the nurse that she feels like ending her life because she can no longer deal with her depression. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Stay with the client and ensure her safety.
• B. Inform the client that she is safe in the hospital.
• C. Document the client's statements in her medical record.
• D. Encourage the client to join a group therapy session.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to stay with the client and ensure her safety. Ensuring the client's safety is the top priority when a client expresses suicidal ideation. Staying with the client can help prevent self-harm while further assessment and interventions are arranged. Choice B is incorrect because simply informing the client that she is safe in the hospital does not address the immediate need for safety. Choice C is incorrect as while documentation is important, it is not the priority when a client's safety is at risk. Choice D is also incorrect as encouraging the client to join a group therapy session is not appropriate when the client is in crisis and expressing suicidal thoughts.

5. A client with a leg amputation is upset about his appearance. The LPN/LVN intends to address which most closely associated psychosocial problem?

• A. Inability to be mobile
• B. Isolating self from others
• C. Inability to tolerate activity
• D. Concern about body persona

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client with a leg amputation being upset about his appearance is most closely associated with concerns about body image and self-perception. This individual may be worried about how others perceive them, impacting their self-esteem and overall well-being. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the primary psychosocial issue in this scenario is related to body image and self-perception, not mobility, social isolation, or activity tolerance.

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