a 45 year old female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for evaluation her husband states that she has been reluctant to leave home for the la
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HESI LPN

Mental Health HESI Practice Questions

1. A 45-year-old female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for evaluation. Her husband states that she has been reluctant to leave home for the last six months. The client has not gone to work for a month and has been terminated from her job. She has not left the house since that time. This client is displaying symptoms of which disorder?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Agoraphobia. Agoraphobia involves the fear of situations where escape might be difficult, often leading to the individual avoiding public spaces or leaving their home. In this case, the client's reluctance to leave home, not going to work, and staying indoors for an extended period align with the symptoms of agoraphobia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Claustrophobia is the fear of confined spaces, acrophobia is the fear of heights, and necrophobia is the fear of death or dead things, none of which are consistent with the client's symptoms described in the scenario.

2. A 22-year-old male client is admitted to the emergency center following a suicide attempt. His records reveal that this is his third suicide attempt in the past two years. He is conscious, but does not respond to verbal commands for treatment. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to prepare the client for gastric lavage?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client's unresponsiveness and inability to cooperate with emetic therapy indicate the need for gastric lavage. Gastric lavage is a procedure used to remove toxic substances from the stomach in cases where the patient is unresponsive or unable to cooperate. Choice A is incorrect as the time of ingestion alone does not indicate the need for gastric lavage. Choice B, although indicating a significant overdose, does not directly necessitate gastric lavage. Choice D is incorrect as it provides information about the possible psychological motivation for repeated suicide attempts, but it is not directly related to the immediate need for gastric lavage in this scenario.

3. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing distressful thoughts secondary to paranoia. Which intervention(s) should the LPN/LVN include in the plan of care? Select one intervention that does not apply.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with schizophrenia experiencing distressful thoughts secondary to paranoia is to avoid laughing when near the client. This is important as laughter can be misinterpreted and exacerbate the client's paranoia. Whispering when communicating near the client is not an appropriate intervention as it may lead the client to think secretive or negative information is being shared about them, further fueling their paranoia. Increasing socialization among peers can help provide support and reduce feelings of isolation, while having the client sign a written release of information form is not directly related to managing paranoia and distressful thoughts.

4. In a mental health unit of a hospital, a LPN/LVN is leading a group psychotherapy session. What is the nurse's role in the termination stage of group development?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the termination stage of group development in psychotherapy, the nurse's role is to acknowledge the contributions of each group member. This action helps to close the group on a positive note, reinforcing the therapeutic experience. Choice A, encouraging problem-solving, is more relevant in the earlier stages of group development. Choice B, encouraging the accomplishment of the group's work, is important throughout the group process but is not specific to the termination stage. Choice D, encouraging members to become acquainted with one another, is more aligned with the initial stages of group formation rather than the termination stage.

5. What information should the nurse include in the client's teaching about starting a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for major depressive disorder?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "It may take several weeks for the medication to take effect." SSRIs typically take several weeks to reach their full effect, and it's important to set realistic expectations for the client. Choice B is incorrect because stopping the medication abruptly can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of depression. Choice C is unrelated to SSRI therapy and pertains more to MAOIs. Choice D is incorrect as SSRIs do not provide immediate improvement in mood; rather, they require time to exert their therapeutic effects.

Similar Questions

A client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia is still withdrawn, unkempt, and unmotivated to get out of bed. A mental health aide asks the nurse why the client is this way after being on fluphenazine (Prolix) 10 mg for 7 days. The LPN/LVN should tell the health aide:
A young adult male with a history of substance abuse is admitted to the psychiatric unit for detoxification. He is agitated, sweating, and reports seeing bugs crawling on the walls. What is the priority nursing intervention?
A client with bipolar disorder is prescribed valproic acid (Depakote). What is the most important laboratory test for the LPN/LVN to monitor?
An 86-year-old female client with Alzheimer's disease is wandering the busy halls of the extended care facility and asks the nurse, 'Where should I stand for the parade?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
A client is scheduled to complete a positron emission tomography (PET) scan. The client asks the nurse to explain the reason the test was prescribed. How should the nurse respond?

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