Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted to the mental health unit and reports taking extra anti-anxiety medication because, 'I'm so stressed out. I just wanted to go to sleep.' The nurse should plan one-on-one observation of the client based on which statement?

• A. What should I do? Nothing seems to help.
• B. I have been so tired lately and needed to sleep.
• C. I really think that I don't need to be here.
• D. I don't want to talk. Nothing matters anymore.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because expressing feelings of hopelessness or nihilism can be indicators of a deeper, possibly dangerous level of depression. Choice A is incorrect as it indicates seeking help, Choice B suggests fatigue, and Choice C implies denial of needing help, none of which directly signify severe depression warranting one-on-one observation.

2. An outpatient clinic that has been receiving haloperidol (Haldol) for 2 days develops muscular rigidity, altered consciousness, a temperature of 103, and trouble breathing on day 3. The LPN/LVN interprets these findings as indicating which of the following?

• A. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
• B. Tardive dyskinesia
• C. Extrapyramidal adverse effects
• D. Drug-induced parkinsonism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) is a life-threatening condition characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, altered consciousness, and autonomic dysregulation. It is a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol (Haldol). NMS requires immediate intervention, including discontinuation of the offending medication and supportive care. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements of the face and extremities that can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Extrapyramidal adverse effects (Choice C) encompass a range of movement disorders like dystonia, akathisia, and parkinsonism that can result from antipsychotic medications, but they do not present with hyperthermia and altered consciousness as in NMS. Drug-induced parkinsonism (Choice D) is a form of parkinsonism caused by certain medications, but it typically presents with symptoms similar to Parkinson's disease, such as tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity, without the severe hyperthermia and autonomic dysregulation seen in NMS.

3. A client with a history of substance abuse is admitted to the hospital for detoxification. What is the most important intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement?

• A. Monitor the client for signs of withdrawal.
• B. Encourage the client to express feelings about substance use.
• C. Provide the client with information about support groups.
• D. Administer prescribed medications to manage withdrawal symptoms.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering prescribed medications to manage withdrawal symptoms is the priority intervention for a client undergoing detoxification. This intervention aims to prevent severe complications that may arise during the detox process. Monitoring for signs of withdrawal (choice A) is important but providing immediate medical management through medications takes precedence to ensure the client's safety. Encouraging the client to express feelings (choice B) and providing information about support groups (choice C) are essential aspects of care but are not as urgent as administering medications to manage withdrawal symptoms.

4. A client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia is still withdrawn, unkempt, and unmotivated to get out of bed. A mental health aide asks the nurse why the client is this way after being on fluphenazine (Prolix) 10 mg for 7 days. The LPN/LVN should tell the health aide:

• A. Prolixin is the most effective with positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
• B. The client will be less withdrawn and unmotivated when the Prolixin takes effect.
• C. The client's Prolixin dose probably needs to be increased again.
• D. Lack of motivation is a common side effect of the Prolixin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prolixin is more effective with positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions, rather than negative symptoms like withdrawal and lack of motivation.

5. A nurse is assessing a client with dementia who is showing signs of increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon. What is the most likely explanation for the client's symptoms?

• A. Anxiety
• B. Depression
• C. Sun-downing syndrome
• D. Medication side effects

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sun-downing syndrome. Sun-downing syndrome is a phenomenon commonly seen in individuals with dementia, where they exhibit increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon or evening. This pattern of behavior is believed to be linked to disruptions in the circadian rhythm and can be triggered by factors such as fatigue, low lighting, or increased shadows during the evening. Choices A and B, anxiety and depression, may be comorbid conditions in individuals with dementia but are not the primary explanation for the symptoms described. While medication side effects (Choice D) should always be considered in a client with dementia, given the time-specific nature of the symptoms, sun-downing syndrome is the most likely explanation in this case.

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