Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted to the mental health unit and reports taking extra anti-anxiety medication because, 'I'm so stressed out. I just wanted to go to sleep.' The nurse should plan one-on-one observation of the client based on which statement?

• A. What should I do? Nothing seems to help.
• B. I have been so tired lately and needed to sleep.
• C. I really think that I don't need to be here.
• D. I don't want to talk. Nothing matters anymore.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because expressing feelings of hopelessness or nihilism can be indicators of a deeper, possibly dangerous level of depression. Choice A is incorrect as it indicates seeking help, Choice B suggests fatigue, and Choice C implies denial of needing help, none of which directly signify severe depression warranting one-on-one observation.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with depression who is prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). The client reports difficulty sleeping. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

• A. Encourage the client to take short naps during the day.
• B. Suggest the client drink a warm beverage before bedtime.
• C. Recommend the client exercise immediately before bedtime.
• D. Advise the client to take a sleep aid nightly.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with difficulty sleeping due to depression and prescribed fluoxetine is to suggest the client drink a warm beverage before bedtime. This intervention can promote relaxation and help establish a bedtime routine, potentially improving sleep quality. Encouraging short naps during the day (Choice A) may disrupt the client's nighttime sleep schedule. Recommending exercise immediately before bedtime (Choice C) can have a stimulating effect, making it harder for the client to fall asleep. Advising the client to take a sleep aid nightly (Choice D) should only be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider due to potential interactions with fluoxetine.

3. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with risperidone (Risperdal). The nurse notices that the client has a shuffling gait and tremors. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a PRN dose of an anticholinergic medication.
• B. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client.
• C. Assess the client's blood glucose level.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A shuffling gait and tremors may indicate extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) from risperidone. The nurse's priority action should be to administer an anticholinergic medication as it can help alleviate these symptoms associated with EPS. Documenting the findings and monitoring the client (Choice B) are important but addressing the immediate symptoms takes precedence. Assessing the client's blood glucose level (Choice C) is not directly related to the observed symptoms of shuffling gait and tremors. While notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important, it is not the priority action when dealing with EPS symptoms.

4. The LPN/LVN is assessing a client's intelligence. Which factor should the nurse remember during this part of the mental status exam?

• A. Acute psychiatric illnesses impair intelligence.
• B. Intelligence is influenced by social and cultural factors.
• C. Poor concentration skills suggest limited intelligence.
• D. The inability to think abstractly indicates limited intelligence.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because intelligence is influenced by social and cultural factors. Social and cultural beliefs can impact how intelligence is perceived and expressed. Choice A is incorrect because acute psychiatric illnesses can affect cognitive functioning but not necessarily intelligence. Choice C is incorrect because poor concentration skills do not always correlate with limited intelligence. Choice D is incorrect because the inability to think abstractly is just one aspect of intelligence and does not solely indicate limited intelligence.

5. A male client who has been on lithium therapy for 5 years is experiencing frequent urination and increased thirst. What should the nurse's next action be?

• A. Instruct the client to increase fluid intake.
• B. Assess for signs of lithium toxicity.
• C. Suggest the client reduce salt intake.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Frequent urination and increased thirst can be signs of lithium toxicity, which can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. Assessing for signs of lithium toxicity is crucial to determine the client's condition and prevent further harm. Instructing the client to increase fluid intake (Choice A) may worsen the situation by exacerbating lithium toxicity. Suggesting the client reduce salt intake (Choice C) is not the priority when signs of toxicity are present. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice D) is important, but the initial action should be to assess the client for signs of lithium toxicity to provide immediate care.

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