HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Exam
1. During initial assessment of the teenager, what information is most important for the nurse to obtain from the parents?
- A. If he has seemed depressed recently.
- B. If a drug overdose has ever occurred before.
- C. If he might have taken any other drugs.
- D. If he has a desire to quit taking drugs.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. It's crucial to determine if the teenager might have taken other substances besides the pain pills mentioned by the mother. This information is vital for effective treatment because knowing the full scope of substances involved helps in managing potential interactions, side effects, and the overall condition of the patient. Options A, B, and D are not as critical in the immediate assessment compared to knowing if the teenager has ingested any other drugs.
2. A nurse working on a mental health unit receives a community call from a person who is tearful and states, 'I just feel so nervous all of the time. I don't know what to do about my problems. I haven't been able to sleep at night and have hardly eaten for the past 3 or 4 days.' The nurse should initiate a referral based on which assessment?
- A. Altered thought processes.
- B. Moderate levels of anxiety.
- C. Inadequate social support.
- D. Altered health maintenance.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should initiate a referral based on moderate levels of anxiety (B) as the client reports feeling nervous all the time, sleep disturbances, poor appetite, and difficulty solving problems. These symptoms are indicative of significant anxiety levels. The client does not mention symptoms related to altered thought processes (A) or inadequate social support (C). There is insufficient information to suggest altered health maintenance (D) as a reason for referral in this scenario.
3. An outpatient clinic that has been receiving haloperidol (Haldol) for 2 days develops muscular rigidity, altered consciousness, a temperature of 103, and trouble breathing on day 3. The LPN/LVN interprets these findings as indicating which of the following?
- A. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
- B. Tardive dyskinesia
- C. Extrapyramidal adverse effects
- D. Drug-induced parkinsonism
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) is a life-threatening condition characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, altered consciousness, and autonomic dysregulation. It is a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol (Haldol). NMS requires immediate intervention, including discontinuation of the offending medication and supportive care. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements of the face and extremities that can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Extrapyramidal adverse effects (Choice C) encompass a range of movement disorders like dystonia, akathisia, and parkinsonism that can result from antipsychotic medications, but they do not present with hyperthermia and altered consciousness as in NMS. Drug-induced parkinsonism (Choice D) is a form of parkinsonism caused by certain medications, but it typically presents with symptoms similar to Parkinson's disease, such as tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity, without the severe hyperthermia and autonomic dysregulation seen in NMS.
4. A client with depression is started on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). What should the LPN/LVN include in the teaching plan?
- A. Take the medication with food to avoid nausea.
- B. You may start feeling better within 1 to 2 weeks.
- C. The medication may take 4 to 6 weeks to become fully effective.
- D. You may experience side effects such as dry mouth or dizziness.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Teaching the client that the medication may take 4 to 6 weeks to become fully effective is crucial as it helps set realistic expectations. While choice A is important to reduce nausea, it is not the most critical information to provide initially. Choice B is incorrect as improvement usually occurs after several weeks of treatment, not within 1 to 2 weeks. Choice D is also relevant, but informing about the full effectiveness of the medication is more important for long-term adherence.
5. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) who is constantly washing her hands?
- A. Allow the client to continue washing her hands.
- B. Set limits on the time spent washing her hands.
- C. Encourage the client to wash her hands less frequently.
- D. Assist the client in finding alternative ways to reduce anxiety.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Assisting the client in finding alternative ways to reduce anxiety is the most appropriate intervention for a client with OCD who is constantly washing her hands. This approach helps address the underlying cause of the compulsive behavior by focusing on reducing anxiety rather than reinforcing the behavior. Allowing the client to continue washing her hands (choice A) would not address the root of the issue and may perpetuate the behavior. Setting limits on the time spent washing hands (choice B) may cause distress to the client and does not address the core problem. Encouraging the client to wash her hands less frequently (choice C) does not provide effective coping strategies for managing anxiety associated with OCD.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access