Nursing Elites

1. The RN is preparing to administer a prescribed dose of haloperidol (Haldol) to a client with schizophrenia. The client begins to exhibit muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status. What action should the RN take first?

• A. Administer the haloperidol as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's vital signs closely.
• C. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider.
• D. Give the client an antipyretic for the fever.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status are symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications. The RN should hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider immediately. Option A is incorrect because administering more of the medication can worsen the symptoms. Option B is not the first priority when the client is experiencing symptoms of NMS. Option D is incorrect as addressing the fever alone does not address the underlying issue of NMS caused by haloperidol.

2. A client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed buspirone (BuSpar). The client asks how long it will take for the medication to start working. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. You should start feeling better within a few days.
• B. It may take 2 to 4 weeks before you notice an improvement.
• C. Buspirone works immediately to reduce anxiety symptoms.
• D. You will need to take this medication for at least a year.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Buspirone typically takes 2 to 4 weeks to become fully effective. It is essential to inform the client that it may take some time before they notice an improvement. Choice A is incorrect because buspirone does not work immediately. Choice C is also incorrect as buspirone does not provide immediate relief. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests a longer duration of treatment than necessary.

3. The LPN/LVN is assessing a client's intelligence. Which factor should the nurse remember during this part of the mental status exam?

• A. Acute psychiatric illnesses impair intelligence.
• B. Intelligence is influenced by social and cultural factors.
• C. Poor concentration skills suggest limited intelligence.
• D. The inability to think abstractly indicates limited intelligence.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because intelligence is influenced by social and cultural factors. Social and cultural beliefs can impact how intelligence is perceived and expressed. Choice A is incorrect because acute psychiatric illnesses can affect cognitive functioning but not necessarily intelligence. Choice C is incorrect because poor concentration skills do not always correlate with limited intelligence. Choice D is incorrect because the inability to think abstractly is just one aspect of intelligence and does not solely indicate limited intelligence.

4. A male client is admitted to the mental health unit because he was feeling depressed about the loss of his wife and job. The client has a history of alcohol dependency and admits that he was drinking alcohol 12 hours ago. Vital signs are: temperature, 100 F, pulse 100, and BP 142/100. The nurse plans to give the client lorazepam (Ativan) based on which priority nursing diagnosis?

• A. Risk for injury related to suicidal ideation.
• B. Risk for injury related to alcohol detoxification.
• C. Knowledge deficit related to ineffective coping.
• D. Health-seeking behaviors related to personal crisis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important nursing diagnosis is related to alcohol detoxification (B) because the client has elevated vital signs, a sign of alcohol detoxification. Giving lorazepam (Ativan) to address the elevated vital signs due to alcohol withdrawal is a priority. Addressing the risk for injury related to suicidal ideation (A) should come after stabilizing the client's physiological state. Both (C) and (D) can be addressed once immediate safety needs are met, but the priority is managing the alcohol detoxification to prevent potential complications.

5. A 22-year-old male client is admitted to the emergency center following a suicide attempt. His records reveal that this is his third suicide attempt in the past two years. He is conscious, but does not respond to verbal commands for treatment. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to prepare the client for gastric lavage?

• A. He ingested the drug 3 hours prior to admission to the emergency center.
• B. The family reports that he took an entire bottle of acetaminophen (Tylenol).
• C. He is unresponsive to instructions and is unable to cooperate with emetic therapy.
• D. Those with repeated suicide attempts desire punishment to relieve their guilt.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client's unresponsiveness to instructions and inability to cooperate with emetic therapy would make it challenging to implement such therapy effectively. In such cases, gastric lavage may be necessary to remove the ingested substance. Choices A and B are important considerations in treatment planning but do not directly indicate the need for gastric lavage. Choice D is incorrect as medical treatments should never be used as punitive measures but rather for therapeutic purposes.

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