HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Questions
1. The RN is preparing to administer a prescribed dose of haloperidol (Haldol) to a client with schizophrenia. The client begins to exhibit muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status. What action should the RN take first?
- A. Administer the haloperidol as prescribed.
- B. Monitor the client's vital signs closely.
- C. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider.
- D. Give the client an antipyretic for the fever.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status are symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications. The RN should hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider immediately. Option A is incorrect because administering more of the medication can worsen the symptoms. Option B is not the first priority when the client is experiencing symptoms of NMS. Option D is incorrect as addressing the fever alone does not address the underlying issue of NMS caused by haloperidol.
2. A female client with bulimia nervosa is admitted to the hospital. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Allow the client to eat meals alone to reduce stress.
- B. Observe the client for 30 minutes after meals.
- C. Provide the client with a high-calorie diet.
- D. Encourage the client to weigh herself daily.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with bulimia nervosa is to observe the client for 30 minutes after meals. This helps prevent purging behaviors, such as vomiting or using laxatives, which are common in bulimia nervosa. Choice A is incorrect because eating meals alone may enable the client to engage in purging behaviors without being observed. Choice C is incorrect as a high-calorie diet may exacerbate the client's concerns about weight gain. Choice D is incorrect because encouraging daily weigh-ins can reinforce obsessive thoughts about weight and body image.
3. The LPN/LVN is assessing a client who is taking an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following symptoms is uniquely indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) and requires immediate attention?
- A. Very high temperature
- B. Muscular rigidity
- C. Tremors
- D. Altered consciousness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A very high temperature is a hallmark symptom of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS), which is a rare but potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. This symptom is uniquely indicative of NMS and requires immediate medical attention. Muscular rigidity, tremors, and altered consciousness can be seen in other conditions but are not as specifically linked to NMS as a very high temperature.
4. A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder tells the nurse that she wants to stop taking her lithium. She states, 'I feel fine, and I don't think I need it anymore.' What should the nurse do first?
- A. Agree with the client that she seems fine now.
- B. Remind the client of the importance of lithium.
- C. Ask the healthcare provider to discontinue the lithium prescription.
- D. Arrange for a psychiatric evaluation for the client.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client with bipolar disorder expresses a desire to stop taking lithium because they feel fine, the nurse's initial action should be to remind the client of the importance of lithium. This approach helps educate the client about the necessity of medication adherence in managing bipolar disorder. Agreeing with the client or immediately arranging a psychiatric evaluation may not address the root issue of medication non-adherence. Asking the healthcare provider to discontinue the prescription without further assessment and intervention could potentially jeopardize the client's stability and treatment plan.
5. Physical examination of a 6-year-old reveals several bite marks in various locations on his body. X-ray examination reveals healed fractures of the ribs. The mother tells the nurse that her child is always having accidents. Which initial response by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. I need to inform the healthcare provider about your child's tendency to be accident-prone.
- B. Tell me more specifically about your child's accidents.
- C. I must report these injuries to the authorities because they do not seem accidental.
- D. Boys this age always seem to require more supervision and can be quite accident-prone.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: (B) seeks more information in a non-threatening manner to gather additional details about the child's accidents. This response allows the nurse to explore the situation further without making assumptions. (A) fails to address the concerning findings and instead focuses on informing the healthcare provider. (C) jumps to conclusions without gathering more information, potentially causing unnecessary distress to the family. (D) dismisses the seriousness of the situation by attributing the injuries to common accidents for boys, missing the opportunity to delve deeper into the issue.
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