Nursing Elites

1. A client with depression reports difficulty sleeping. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

• A. Encourage the client to take short naps during the day.
• B. Suggest the client drink a warm beverage before bedtime.
• C. Recommend the client exercise immediately before bedtime.
• D. Advise the client to take a sleep aid nightly.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with depression reporting difficulty sleeping is to suggest the client drink a warm beverage before bedtime. A warm beverage can promote relaxation and help establish a bedtime routine, which may aid in improving sleep quality. Encouraging short naps during the day (Choice A) may disrupt the client's nighttime sleep pattern. Recommending exercise immediately before bedtime (Choice C) can have a stimulating effect, making it harder for the client to fall asleep. Advising the client to take a sleep aid nightly (Choice D) should only be considered after other non-pharmacological interventions have been attempted and in consultation with a healthcare provider due to potential side effects and risks associated with sleep aids.

2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with schizophrenia who is prescribed clozapine (Clozaril). Which information should the nurse include?

• A. You need to come in for regular blood tests.
• B. This medication can cause weight loss.
• C. You can stop taking this medication once you feel better.
• D. Avoid foods high in tyramine while on this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You need to come in for regular blood tests.' Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening condition, so regular blood tests are required to monitor the client's white blood cell count. Choice B is incorrect because clozapine is associated with weight gain, not weight loss. Choice C is incorrect because the client should never stop taking clozapine abruptly due to the risk of withdrawal symptoms and symptom relapse. Choice D is incorrect because avoiding foods high in tyramine is typically associated with MAOIs, not clozapine.

3. An adolescent with major depressive disorder has been taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) for the past 12 days. Which assessment finding requires immediate follow-up?

• A. Describes life as without purpose.
• B. Exhibits an increase in sweating.
• C. States is often fatigued and drowsy.
• D. Complains of nausea and loss of appetite.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Expressing that life is without purpose can indicate deepening depression or suicidal ideation, which requires immediate attention. While sweating, fatigue, drowsiness, nausea, and loss of appetite can be side effects of duloxetine (Cymbalta), they do not indicate the same level of urgency as a statement suggesting deepening depression or suicidal ideation.

4. A male client with bipolar disorder has not slept or eaten in four days. He paces and becomes increasingly agitated and loud while the nurse talks to his spouse. What intervention is the best for the nurse to implement at this time?

• A. Move to a quiet area and provide peanut butter with crackers.
• B. Walk with the client to the cafeteria and star as he eats lunch.
• C. Request a full lunch tray from the dietary department.
• D. Encourage the spouse to eat lunch with the client.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, the best intervention for the nurse to implement is to move the client to a quiet area and provide peanut butter with crackers. The client's behavior indicates increasing agitation and loudness, which could be exacerbated by a noisy environment. Providing a quiet space can help reduce stimuli and promote a sense of calm. Additionally, offering a small, manageable snack like peanut butter with crackers can address the client's immediate needs for sustenance without overwhelming him. Choices B, C, and D do not address the client's current agitation and lack of sleep or food effectively, making them less appropriate interventions in this scenario.

5. The nurse is taking a history for a female client who is requesting a routine female exam. Which assessment finding requires follow-up?

• A. Menstruation onset at age 9.
• B. Contraceptive method includes condoms only.
• C. Menstrual cycle occurs every 35 days.
• D. 'Black-out' after one drink last night on a date.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Experiencing a 'black-out' after consuming only one drink is highly unusual and may indicate the client was drugged, necessitating immediate follow-up. Menstruation onset at age 9 and a menstrual cycle occurring every 35 days, although on the outer ranges of 'average,' are within acceptable norms. Relying solely on condoms as a contraceptive method increases the risk of conception.

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