Nursing Elites

1. A client with depression reports difficulty sleeping. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

• A. Encourage the client to take short naps during the day.
• B. Suggest the client drink a warm beverage before bedtime.
• C. Recommend the client exercise immediately before bedtime.
• D. Advise the client to take a sleep aid nightly.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with depression reporting difficulty sleeping is to suggest the client drink a warm beverage before bedtime. A warm beverage can promote relaxation and help establish a bedtime routine, which may aid in improving sleep quality. Encouraging short naps during the day (Choice A) may disrupt the client's nighttime sleep pattern. Recommending exercise immediately before bedtime (Choice C) can have a stimulating effect, making it harder for the client to fall asleep. Advising the client to take a sleep aid nightly (Choice D) should only be considered after other non-pharmacological interventions have been attempted and in consultation with a healthcare provider due to potential side effects and risks associated with sleep aids.

2. The client is planning discharge for a male client with schizophrenia. The client insists that he is returning to his apartment, although the healthcare provider informed him that he will be moving to a boarding home. What is the most important nursing diagnosis for discharge planning?

• A. Ineffective denial related to situational anxiety.
• B. Ineffective coping related to inadequate support.
• C. Social isolation related to difficult interactions.
• D. Self-care deficit related to cognitive impairment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best nursing diagnosis is (A) because the client is unable to acknowledge the move to a boarding home. While (B, C, and D) are potential nursing diagnoses, denial is the most critical as it is a defense mechanism preventing the client from addressing his feelings regarding the change in living arrangements.

3. In observing a client who is pacing, agitated, and presenting aggressive gestures, with rapid speech pattern and belligerent affect, what is the immediate priority of care for the nurse?

• A. Provide safety for the client and other clients on the unit
• B. Provide the clients on the unit with a sense of comfort and safety
• C. Assist the staff in caring for the client in a controlled environment
• D. Offer the client a less stimulated area to calm down and gain control

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a situation where a client is displaying aggression and agitation, the immediate priority of care for the nurse is to ensure safety for the client and others on the unit. Providing a safe environment and implementing calming measures take precedence over other interventions. Option A is the correct choice as it addresses the crucial need for safety in a potentially volatile situation. Options B, C, and D, although important, do not address the primary concern of ensuring safety for all individuals involved.

4. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client with depression who has been prescribed an SSRI. The client reports feeling more energy but is still feeling hopeless. What should the nurse be most concerned about?

• A. That the client may act on suicidal thoughts.
• B. That the client may engage in impulsive behavior.
• C. That the client may be experiencing the side effects of the medication.
• D. That the client may be at risk for developing serotonin syndrome.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should be most concerned that the client may act on suicidal thoughts. An increase in energy combined with persistent feelings of hopelessness can indicate a higher risk of suicide. While impulsive behavior can be a concern, the primary worry should be the client's safety regarding suicidal ideation. Side effects of the medication are important to monitor but do not take precedence over the risk of self-harm. Serotonin syndrome is a potential concern with SSRIs, but in this scenario, the client's mental health and safety are the immediate priority.

5. The RN is preparing to administer a prescribed dose of haloperidol (Haldol) to a client with schizophrenia. The client begins to exhibit muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status. What action should the RN take first?

• A. Administer the haloperidol as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's vital signs closely.
• C. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider.
• D. Give the client an antipyretic for the fever.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status are symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications. The RN should hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider immediately. Option A is incorrect because administering more of the medication can worsen the symptoms. Option B is not the first priority when the client is experiencing symptoms of NMS. Option D is incorrect as addressing the fever alone does not address the underlying issue of NMS caused by haloperidol.

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