a client with a leg amputation is upset about his appearance the lpnlvn intends to address which most closely associated psychosocial problem
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Mental Health HESI 2023

1. A client with a leg amputation is upset about his appearance. The LPN/LVN intends to address which most closely associated psychosocial problem?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client with a leg amputation being upset about his appearance is most closely associated with concerns about body image and self-perception. This individual may be worried about how others perceive them, impacting their self-esteem and overall well-being. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the primary psychosocial issue in this scenario is related to body image and self-perception, not mobility, social isolation, or activity tolerance.

2. When caring for a client with borderline personality disorder in a psychiatric unit, what is the most therapeutic nursing intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Setting clear and consistent boundaries is the most therapeutic nursing intervention when caring for a client with borderline personality disorder. This approach provides structure, promotes predictability, and helps prevent manipulative behaviors. By establishing boundaries, the nurse can maintain a safe therapeutic relationship with the client. Allowing the client to vent their feelings without interruption (Choice B) may not always be beneficial, as it could reinforce maladaptive behaviors. Encouraging participation in group therapy (Choice C) can be helpful but setting boundaries is more critical for individualized care. Providing the client with frequent reassurance and support (Choice D) may not address the underlying issues and can contribute to dependency rather than fostering independence and coping skills.

3. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with haloperidol (Haldol) and begins to exhibit symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to report the symptoms to the healthcare provider immediately. Tardive dyskinesia is a serious side effect of antipsychotic medications, including haloperidol. Prompt reporting is crucial to evaluate the need for medication adjustment or change in treatment. Continuing the medication without intervention (choice A) can worsen the symptoms. Administering the next dose (choice B) is not appropriate when tardive dyskinesia is suspected. Educating the client (choice D) is important but not the priority when dealing with acute symptoms of tardive dyskinesia.

4. A female client with depression attends a group and states that she sometimes misses her medication appointments because she feels very anxious about riding the bus. Which statement is the nurse's best response?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging the client to discuss coping mechanisms for anxiety is a supportive approach that empowers the client to manage their symptoms. Choice A may not address the client's self-management and coping skills. Choice B suggests using anxiety medication before riding the bus, which may not be the most appropriate solution. Choice C acknowledges the anxiety but does not actively involve the client in finding solutions, unlike Choice D which promotes client empowerment and self-efficacy.

5. A male client with schizophrenia who is taking fluphenazine decanoate (Prolixin decanoate) is being discharged in the morning. A repeat dose of medication is scheduled for 20 days after discharge. The client tells the nurse that he is going on vacation in the Bahamas and will return in 18 days. Which statement by the client indicates a need for health teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Photosensitivity is a side effect of Prolixin, and a vacation in the Bahamas (with its tropical island climate) increases the client's risk of experiencing this side effect. Therefore, the client should be advised to avoid direct sun exposure. Choice A indicates a need for health teaching as the client plans to return from vacation in 18 days, which is earlier than the scheduled dose of Prolixin at 20 days after discharge. Choices B, C, and D demonstrate accurate knowledge. Choice B is important because alcohol can interact with Prolixin. Choice C is relevant as it mentions signs of agranulocytosis, a potential side effect of Prolixin. Choice D is correct as benztropine mesylate is used to prevent extrapyramidal symptoms associated with Prolixin.

Similar Questions

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