Nursing Elites

1. A client with Alzheimer's disease is becoming increasingly agitated and combative in the late afternoon. What is the most appropriate intervention?

• A. Offer a sedative medication to calm the client.
• B. Encourage the client to rest in a quiet, low-stimulation environment.
• C. Use reality orientation to reduce confusion.
• D. Engage the client in physical activity to reduce agitation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to rest in a quiet, low-stimulation environment is the most appropriate intervention for a client with Alzheimer's disease who is becoming agitated and combative in the late afternoon. This approach helps reduce agitation and prevent overstimulation, providing a calming and soothing environment for the client. Offering a sedative medication (Choice A) should be avoided as it may have side effects and should only be considered as a last resort. Reality orientation (Choice C) may increase confusion and distress in clients with advanced Alzheimer's disease. Engaging the client in physical activity (Choice D) could potentially escalate the agitation rather than reduce it in this scenario.

2. When a client with schizophrenia is being discharged on antipsychotic medication, what is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?

• A. Stop the medication if you start feeling better.
• B. Be aware of the potential for weight gain with this medication.
• C. Report any unusual muscle movements immediately.
• D. You can drive as soon as you feel ready.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to report any unusual muscle movements immediately. These movements may indicate extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) or tardive dyskinesia, which are serious side effects of antipsychotic medications that require immediate attention. Choice A is incorrect because stopping the medication without medical advice can lead to a relapse of symptoms. Choice B is important but not as critical as monitoring for EPS. Choice D is incorrect because driving readiness is not directly related to antipsychotic medication instructions.

3. A female client with borderline personality disorder expresses fear of being abandoned by the nursing staff. What is the best nursing intervention?

• A. Reassure the client that she will not be abandoned.
• B. Set limits on the client's behavior and enforce them consistently.
• C. Encourage the client to talk about her fears.
• D. Rotate the nursing staff assigned to the client frequently.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best nursing intervention for a client with borderline personality disorder expressing fear of abandonment is to set limits on the client's behavior and enforce them consistently. This approach helps establish boundaries and provides a sense of security for the client. Choice A may provide temporary reassurance but does not address the core issue or help the client develop coping strategies. Choice C is important but should be accompanied by setting limits to address the underlying fear of abandonment. Choice D of rotating staff frequently can exacerbate the client's fear of abandonment by reinforcing the idea of being left.

4. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with haloperidol (Haldol). The LPN/LVN observes the client pacing in the hallway and appearing anxious. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Ask the client to sit down and relax.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of antipsychotic medication.
• C. Encourage the client to talk about what is making him anxious.
• D. Monitor the client for adverse reactions to the medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of antipsychotic medication is the first action the nurse should take to manage symptoms of anxiety in a client being treated with haloperidol. The priority is to address the client's escalating anxiety and pacing behavior, which can be managed effectively by providing additional antipsychotic medication. Asking the client to sit down and relax (Choice A) may not be effective if the anxiety is due to inadequate medication levels. Encouraging the client to talk about what is making him anxious (Choice C) may not be beneficial in this acute situation and can be considered after addressing the immediate need for symptom management. Monitoring for adverse reactions (Choice D) is important but is not the first action to take when the client is showing signs of increasing anxiety and agitation.

5. An adult male client who was admitted to the mental health unit yesterday tells the nurse that microchips were planted in his head for military surveillance of his every move. Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide?

• A. You are in the hospital, and I am the nurse caring for you.
• B. It must be difficult for you to control your anxious feelings.
• C. Go to occupational therapy and start a project.
• D. You are not in a war area now; this is the United States.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response for the LPN/LVN to provide is option A: 'You are in the hospital, and I am the nurse caring for you.' This response is effective as it grounds the client in the present reality while also acknowledging the client's feelings. It shows acceptance of the client's experience without directly challenging the delusional belief, which can help build rapport and trust. Option B focuses on anxiety rather than validating the client's experience or addressing the delusion. Option C suggests an unrelated activity that may not be helpful in this situation. Option D attempts to correct the client's belief, which is not likely to be effective in managing delusional thoughts.

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