Nursing Elites

1. A male client is admitted to the mental health unit because he was feeling depressed about the loss of his wife and job. The client has a history of alcohol dependency and admits that he was drinking alcohol 12 hours ago. Vital signs are: temperature, 100 F, pulse 100, and BP 142/100. The nurse plans to give the client lorazepam (Ativan) based on which priority nursing diagnosis?

• A. Risk for injury related to suicidal ideation.
• B. Risk for injury related to alcohol detoxification.
• C. Knowledge deficit related to ineffective coping.
• D. Health-seeking behaviors related to personal crisis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important nursing diagnosis is related to alcohol detoxification (B) because the client has elevated vital signs, a sign of alcohol detoxification. Giving lorazepam (Ativan) to address the elevated vital signs due to alcohol withdrawal is a priority. Addressing the risk for injury related to suicidal ideation (A) should come after stabilizing the client's physiological state. Both (C) and (D) can be addressed once immediate safety needs are met, but the priority is managing the alcohol detoxification to prevent potential complications.

2. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which intervention is most appropriate for the nurse to implement?

• A. Encourage the client to talk about the traumatic event.
• B. Assist the client in developing coping strategies.
• C. Refer the client to a PTSD support group.
• D. Administer prescribed medications to manage symptoms.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assisting the client in developing coping strategies is an appropriate intervention for managing PTSD. This approach helps the client build resilience and learn how to effectively cope with symptoms. Choice A, encouraging the client to talk about the traumatic event, may not be appropriate as it can potentially re-traumatize the client. Referring the client to a PTSD support group, as in choice C, can be beneficial but may not be the most immediate intervention. Administering medications, as in choice D, is important in some cases, but focusing on coping strategies should be prioritized as a holistic approach to managing PTSD.

3. A woman brings her 48-year-old husband to the outpatient psychiatric unit and describes his behavior to the admitting nurse. She states that he has been sleepwalking, cannot remember who he is, and exhibits multiple personalities. The nurse knows that these behaviors are often associated with

• A. dissociative disorder.
• B. obsessive-compulsive disorder.
• C. panic disorder.
• D. post-traumatic stress disorder.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: dissociative disorder. Sleepwalking, amnesia, and multiple personalities are examples of detaching emotional conflict from one's consciousness, which is the definition of a dissociative disorder. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (B) is characterized by persistent, recurrent intrusive thoughts or urges (obsessions) and compulsions. Panic disorder (C) is characterized by acute attacks of anxiety. Post-traumatic stress disorder (D) involves re-experiencing psychologically distressing events.

4. A client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder, manic phase. Which activity is most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to suggest to the client?

• A. Playing a game of basketball with other clients.
• B. Taking a walk with the nurse in the garden.
• C. Working on a puzzle in a quiet room.
• D. Writing in a journal.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the manic phase of bipolar disorder, individuals may experience heightened levels of energy and agitation. Engaging in activities that are overly stimulating, such as playing basketball with others (choice A) or taking a walk in a garden (choice B), can exacerbate these symptoms. Writing in a journal (choice D) may also be too stimulating and may not provide the necessary distraction. Working on a puzzle in a quiet room (choice C) can offer a calming and focused activity that helps reduce anxiety and channel excess energy into a structured task, making it the most appropriate choice for a client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder.

5. A client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia is still withdrawn, unkempt, and unmotivated to get out of bed. A mental health aide asks the nurse why the client is this way after being on fluphenazine (Prolix) 10 mg for 7 days. The LPN/LVN should tell the health aide:

• A. Prolixin is the most effective with positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
• B. The client will be less withdrawn and unmotivated when the Prolixin takes effect.
• C. The client's Prolixin dose probably needs to be increased again.
• D. Lack of motivation is a common side effect of the Prolixin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prolixin is more effective with positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions, rather than negative symptoms like withdrawal and lack of motivation.

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