Nursing Elites

1. During the manic phase of bipolar disorder, what is the priority nursing intervention for a female client who has not slept for the past 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors?

• A. Encourage the client to participate in a quiet activity.
• B. Provide a safe environment and limit stimuli.
• C. Administer a sedative to help the client sleep.
• D. Discuss the consequences of her risky behaviors.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct priority nursing intervention for a female client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder, who has not slept for 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors, is to provide a safe environment and limit stimuli. This approach is crucial to prevent harm to the client and others. Encouraging a quiet activity (Choice A) may not effectively address the need for safety during the manic phase. Administering a sedative (Choice C) should be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider and does not address the immediate safety concerns. Discussing consequences of risky behaviors (Choice D) may not be effective during the manic phase when the client's judgment is impaired.

2. During initial assessment of the teenager, what information is most important for the nurse to obtain from the parents?

• A. If he has seemed depressed recently.
• B. If a drug overdose has ever occurred before.
• C. If he might have taken any other drugs.
• D. If he has a desire to quit taking drugs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. It's crucial to determine if the teenager might have taken other substances besides the pain pills mentioned by the mother. This information is vital for effective treatment because knowing the full scope of substances involved helps in managing potential interactions, side effects, and the overall condition of the patient. Options A, B, and D are not as critical in the immediate assessment compared to knowing if the teenager has ingested any other drugs.

3. A female client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) has been experiencing flashbacks. Which intervention should the nurse implement to help the client?

• A. Encourage the client to talk about the trauma.
• B. Advise the client to avoid triggers that cause flashbacks.
• C. Help the client stay grounded in the present moment.
• D. Refer the client to group therapy for PTSD.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with PTSD experiencing flashbacks is to help them stay grounded in the present moment. This technique can reduce the intensity of flashbacks and provide a sense of safety. Encouraging the client to talk about the trauma (Choice A) may exacerbate the symptoms and should be done cautiously under professional guidance. Advising the client to avoid triggers (Choice B) is important, but solely relying on avoidance may not address the underlying issues. Referring the client to group therapy (Choice D) can be beneficial, but in the immediate context of managing flashbacks, grounding techniques are more appropriate.

4. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with haloperidol (Haldol). The client reports feeling restless and unable to sit still. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Instruct the client to take deep breaths and relax.
• B. Assess the client for signs of akathisia.
• C. Encourage the client to engage in physical activity.
• D. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Restlessness and inability to sit still are signs of akathisia, an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic medications. The nurse should first assess the client for signs of akathisia by observing their movements and behavior. Assessing for akathisia is crucial to differentiate it from other conditions and to intervene appropriately. Instructing the client to relax or engage in physical activity may not address the underlying issue of akathisia. Administering lorazepam should not be the first action as it may mask the symptoms of akathisia temporarily without addressing the root cause.

5. A client who has been admitted to the psychiatric unit tells the nurse, 'My problems are so bad that no one can help me.' Which response is best for the nurse to make?

• A. How can I help?
• B. Things probably aren't as bad as they seem right now.
• C. Let's talk about what is right with your life.
• D. I hear how miserable you are, but things will get better soon.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering self shows empathy and caring (A) and is the best choice provided. (B) dismisses the client's feelings and reality. (C) avoids addressing the client's concerns directly and may come across as invalidating. Although (D) starts with acknowledging the client's feelings, the second part about things getting better soon can be perceived as offering false reassurance, which is not recommended in therapeutic communication.

Similar Questions