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HESI Mental Health Practice Exam
1. During the manic phase of bipolar disorder, what is the priority nursing intervention for a female client who has not slept for the past 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors?
- A. Encourage the client to participate in a quiet activity.
- B. Provide a safe environment and limit stimuli.
- C. Administer a sedative to help the client sleep.
- D. Discuss the consequences of her risky behaviors.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct priority nursing intervention for a female client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder, who has not slept for 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors, is to provide a safe environment and limit stimuli. This approach is crucial to prevent harm to the client and others. Encouraging a quiet activity (Choice A) may not effectively address the need for safety during the manic phase. Administering a sedative (Choice C) should be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider and does not address the immediate safety concerns. Discussing consequences of risky behaviors (Choice D) may not be effective during the manic phase when the client's judgment is impaired.
2. A female client presents to the emergency center with confusion, emotional numbness, and expresses to the nurse a feeling of disbelief that she was raped. The nurse determines the client is in the acute phase of rape-trauma syndrome. What action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Secure samples of vaginal hair combings.
- B. Offer prophylactic antibiotic medication.
- C. Explain the rape protocol to the client.
- D. Implement crisis intervention counseling.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In cases of rape-trauma syndrome, it is crucial to provide clear information about what to expect during the examination and treatment. This can help the client regain a sense of control and reduce anxiety. Explaining the rape protocol to the client should be the first action to implement. Option A is not the priority at this stage as the immediate focus is on addressing the client's emotional needs and providing support. Option B is not the first action unless medically indicated. Option D, crisis intervention counseling, is important but should come after providing essential information and support to the client.
3. An emergency department nurse is caring for an adult client who is a victim of family violence. Which priority instruction would be included in the discharge instructions?
- A. Information regarding shelters
- B. Instructions regarding calling the police
- C. Instructions regarding self-defense classes
- D. Explaining the importance of leaving the violent situation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Information regarding shelters. Providing information about shelters is crucial in cases of family violence as it ensures the client has a safe place to go after discharge, prioritizing their immediate safety. Option B, instructions regarding calling the police, may be necessary but ensuring a safe place to stay is more immediate. Option C, instructions regarding self-defense classes, may not be appropriate as the priority is to ensure the client's safety rather than teaching self-defense. Option D, explaining the importance of leaving the violent situation, is relevant but providing information on immediate shelter options is the priority.
4. A client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder is pacing the hallway and talking rapidly. What is the best intervention for the nurse?
- A. Encourage the client to join a group activity.
- B. Offer the client a high-calorie snack and a drink.
- C. Direct the client to a quieter area of the unit.
- D. Instruct the client to sit down and relax.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In the manic phase of bipolar disorder, clients often exhibit increased activity and may burn a lot of energy. Offering a high-calorie snack and a drink is the best intervention as it helps maintain their nutritional needs while allowing them to continue their activity. Encouraging the client to join a group activity (Choice A) may further stimulate their behavior. Directing the client to a quieter area (Choice C) might not address their energy expenditure. Instructing the client to sit down and relax (Choice D) may not be effective during the manic phase.
5. The nurse should hold the next scheduled dose of a client's haloperidol (Haldol) based on which assessment finding(s)?
- A. Dizziness when standing.
- B. Shuffling gait and hand tremors.
- C. Urinary retention.
- D. Fever of 102°F.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A fever (D) may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially fatal complication of antipsychotics. The healthcare provider should be contacted before administering the next dose of Haldol. Dizziness when standing (A), shuffling gait and hand tremors (B), and urinary retention (C) are all adverse effects of Haldol that, while concerning, do not pose immediate life-threatening risks compared to the potential severity of NMS indicated by a fever.
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