a female client with bipolar disorder is in the manic phase and has not slept for the past 48 hours she is hyperactive talkative and engaging in risky
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Mental Health Practice Exam

1. During the manic phase of bipolar disorder, what is the priority nursing intervention for a female client who has not slept for the past 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct priority nursing intervention for a female client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder, who has not slept for 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors, is to provide a safe environment and limit stimuli. This approach is crucial to prevent harm to the client and others. Encouraging a quiet activity (Choice A) may not effectively address the need for safety during the manic phase. Administering a sedative (Choice C) should be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider and does not address the immediate safety concerns. Discussing consequences of risky behaviors (Choice D) may not be effective during the manic phase when the client's judgment is impaired.

2. A client on the psychiatric unit appears to imitate a certain nurse on the unit. The client seeks out this particular nurse and imitates the nurse's mannerisms. The nurse knows that the client is using which defense mechanism?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is (B) Identification. In this scenario, the client is imitating the nurse's mannerisms, which is a form of identification, a defense mechanism where an individual adopts the characteristics or behaviors of someone they admire or view as powerful. (A) Sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable actions, not imitation. (C) Introjection is the internalization of external qualities or attributes, not imitation. (D) Repression is the unconscious exclusion of painful thoughts or memories from awareness, which is not demonstrated in this case.

3. The parents of a 14-year-old boy bring their son to the hospital. He is lethargic but responsive. The mother states, 'I think he took some of my pain pills.' During the initial assessment of the teenager, what information is most important for the nurse to obtain from the parents?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a situation where a teenager is brought to the hospital after possibly ingesting pills, the most crucial information for the nurse to obtain from the parents is whether the teenager might have taken any other drugs (C). This knowledge is vital for guiding further treatment, such as administering antagonists, making it the top priority. While information about depression (A) and previous drug overdoses (B) is valuable for treatment planning, it is not as critical as knowing all substances taken. Asking about the teenager's desire to quit taking drugs (D) is not appropriate during the acute management of a drug overdose and does not take precedence over determining what other substances might have been ingested.

4. A 72-year-old female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depression. Which statement by the client should be of greatest concern to the nurse and require further assessment?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Sometimes a client will use an analogy to describe themselves, and (A) would be an indication for conducting a suicide assessment. (B) could have a variety of etiologies, and while further assessment is indicated, this statement does not indicate potential suicide. The normal grief process differs from depression, and at this client's age, peer/cohort deaths are more frequent, so (C) would be within normal limits. (D) is an expression of low self-esteem typical of depression. Choices (B), (C), and (D) are examples of decreased energy and mood levels which would negate suicide ideation at this time.

5. Which information should the LPN/LVN exclude in the nursing plan of care for a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because including the medical diagnosis of the client in the nursing plan is redundant as the healthcare team is already aware of the diagnosis. The nursing plan of care for a client with OCD should focus on individualized goals, objectives, attendance at group therapy sessions, and self-care measures to improve hygiene. These components directly contribute to addressing the client's needs and promoting recovery. Therefore, the medical diagnosis does not need to be included in the nursing plan as it does not actively guide the day-to-day care and interventions for the client.

Similar Questions

A female client with obsessive compulsive personality disorder is admitted to the hospital for a cardiac catheterization. The afternoon before the procedure, the client begins to keep detailed notes of the nursing care she is receiving and reports her findings to the RN at bedtime. What action should the nurse implement?
A 25-year-old female client has been particularly restless, and the nurse finds her trying to leave the psychiatric unit. She tells the nurse, 'Please let me go! I must leave because the secret police are after me.' Which response is best for the nurse to make?
When preparing a teaching plan for a client who is to be discharged with a prescription for lithium carbonate (Lithonate), which instruction is most important for the nurse to include?
A male client with bipolar disorder has not slept or eaten in four days. He paces and becomes increasingly agitated and loud while the nurse talks to his spouse. What intervention is the best for the nurse to implement at this time?
Which client outcome indicates improvement for a client who is admitted with auditory hallucinations?

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses