Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is conducting discharge teaching for a client with schizophrenia who plans to live in a group home. Which statement is most indicative of the need for careful follow-up after discharge?

• A. Crickets are a good source of protein.
• B. I have not heard any voices for a week.
• C. Only my belief in God can help me.
• D. Sometimes I have a hard time sitting still.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The statement 'Only my belief in God can help me' suggests a reliance on spiritual intervention over medical treatment, raising concerns about potential non-compliance. This indicates the need for close follow-up to ensure the client's well-being and adherence to the prescribed treatment plan. Choices A, B, and D do not directly address potential issues related to treatment compliance or the need for follow-up care after discharge.

2. A female client with severe depression who has been on antidepressants for two weeks suddenly becomes more energetic and talkative. What action should the RN take first?

• A. Encourage the client to participate in group activities.
• B. Monitor the client closely for signs of suicidal behavior.
• C. Praise the client for the apparent improvement.
• D. Discuss the client's progress with the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A sudden increase in energy and talkativeness in a client with severe depression who has been on antidepressants for a short period may indicate an increased risk of suicide due to the potential shift from profound sadness to motivation to act. The first action the RN should take is to monitor the client closely for signs of suicidal behavior. Encouraging participation in group activities or praising the client for the apparent improvement may overlook the potential risk of suicidal behavior. While discussing the client's progress with the healthcare provider is important, the immediate concern is to ensure the client's safety by closely monitoring for any signs of suicidal ideation or behavior.

3. A client who is being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness. What action should the LPN/LVN take?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately and prepare for administration of an antidote.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider of the symptoms prior to the next administration of the drug.
• C. Record the symptoms as normal side effects and continue administration of the prescribed dosage.
• D. Hold the medication and refuse to administer additional amounts of the drug.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops symptoms like diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness, it could indicate lithium toxicity. The appropriate action for the LPN/LVN is to notify the healthcare provider immediately of these symptoms before the next administration of the drug. This prompt communication is crucial to ensure that the healthcare provider can assess the situation, adjust the treatment plan if necessary, and prevent potential complications associated with lithium toxicity. Option A is incorrect because administering an antidote should be based on the healthcare provider's assessment. Option C is incorrect as these symptoms are not normal side effects and could indicate a serious issue. Option D is incorrect because refusing to administer the drug without consulting the healthcare provider could delay necessary interventions.

4. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a medical diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. During the admission procedure, the client looks up and states, 'No, it's not MY fault. You can't blame me. I didn't kill him, you did.' What action is best for the nurse to take?

• A. Reassure the client by telling him that his fear of the admission procedure is to be expected.
• B. Tell the client that no one is accusing him of murder and remind him that the hospital is a safe place.
• C. Assess the content of the hallucinations by asking the client what he is hearing.
• D. Ignore the behavior and make no response at all to his delusional statements.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to assess the content of the hallucinations by asking the client what he is hearing (C). Further assessment is needed to understand the nature of the client's delusions and hallucinations. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on reassuring the client about his fear, which is not addressing the underlying issue of the delusional statement. Choice B is incorrect as it argues with the client's delusion and offers false reassurance, which is not therapeutic. Choice D is incorrect as ignoring the behavior and making no response disregards the client's needs for assessment and support.

5. A male client is admitted to the mental health unit because he was feeling depressed about the loss of his wife and job. The client has a history of alcohol dependency and admits that he was drinking alcohol 12 hours ago. Vital signs are: temperature, 100 F, pulse 100, and BP 142/100. The nurse plans to give the client lorazepam (Ativan) based on which priority nursing diagnosis?

• A. Risk for injury related to suicidal ideation.
• B. Risk for injury related to alcohol detoxification.
• C. Knowledge deficit related to ineffective coping.
• D. Health-seeking behaviors related to personal crisis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important nursing diagnosis is related to alcohol detoxification (B) because the client has elevated vital signs, a sign of alcohol detoxification. Giving lorazepam (Ativan) to address the elevated vital signs due to alcohol withdrawal is a priority. Addressing the risk for injury related to suicidal ideation (A) should come after stabilizing the client's physiological state. Both (C) and (D) can be addressed once immediate safety needs are met, but the priority is managing the alcohol detoxification to prevent potential complications.

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