HESI LPN
Mental Health HESI 2023
1. The nurse is conducting discharge teaching for a client with schizophrenia who plans to live in a group home. Which statement is most indicative of the need for careful follow-up after discharge?
- A. Crickets are a good source of protein.
- B. I have not heard any voices for a week.
- C. Only my belief in God can help me.
- D. Sometimes I have a hard time sitting still.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The statement 'Only my belief in God can help me' suggests a reliance on spiritual intervention over medical treatment, raising concerns about potential non-compliance. This indicates the need for close follow-up to ensure the client's well-being and adherence to the prescribed treatment plan. Choices A, B, and D do not directly address potential issues related to treatment compliance or the need for follow-up care after discharge.
2. Which action should the nurse implement during the termination phase of the nurse-client relationship?
- A. Identify new problem areas.
- B. Confront changes not completed.
- C. Explore the client's past in depth.
- D. Help summarize accomplishments.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During the termination phase of the nurse-client relationship, it is essential for the nurse to help summarize accomplishments. This action provides closure by reflecting on the progress and goals achieved during treatment. It reinforces the positive aspects of the therapeutic relationship and helps the client acknowledge their growth and achievements. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Identifying new problem areas is not appropriate during termination, as the focus should be on closure. Confronting changes not completed may create tension and disrupt the positive closure process. Exploring the client's past in depth is more suitable for earlier stages of the therapeutic relationship, not during termination.
3. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) repeatedly washes her hands throughout the day. What is the most therapeutic nursing intervention?
- A. Allow the client to continue the behavior to reduce anxiety.
- B. Encourage the client to talk about the underlying fears.
- C. Restrict the client's access to soap and water.
- D. Schedule a time for the client to perform the ritual.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging the client to talk about the underlying fears is the most therapeutic nursing intervention for a client with OCD who repeatedly washes her hands. By discussing the fears, the client can gain insight into the behavior and work towards reducing the compulsion. Choice A is incorrect as allowing the client to continue the behavior can perpetuate the OCD symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as restricting access to soap and water can lead to increased anxiety and distress. Choice D is incorrect as scheduling a time for the client to perform the ritual does not address the underlying fears driving the behavior.
4. A client is admitted to a medical nursing unit with a diagnosis of acute blindness. Many tests are performed, and there seems to be no organic reason why this client cannot see. The client became blind after witnessing a hit-and-run car accident, when a family of three was killed. A LPN/LVN suspects that the client may be experiencing a:
- A. Psychosis
- B. Repression
- C. Conversion Disorder
- D. Dissociative Disorder
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the client's acute blindness without any organic cause following a traumatic event indicates a case of Conversion Disorder. Conversion Disorder involves the manifestation of physical symptoms due to psychological stressors. Psychosis (choice A) involves a loss of contact with reality, which is not evident here. Repression (choice B) is a defense mechanism that involves unconsciously blocking out thoughts. Dissociative Disorder (choice D) involves disruptions in memory, awareness, identity, or perception, which is not the primary issue in this case.
5. The wife of a male client recently diagnosed with schizophrenia asks the nurse, 'What exactly is schizophrenia? Is my husband all right?' Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide to this family member?
- A. It sounds like you're worried about your husband. Let's sit down and talk.
- B. It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.
- C. Your husband will be just fine if he takes his medications regularly.
- D. I think you should talk to your husband's psychologist about this question.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best response for the LPN/LVN to provide to the wife of a male client diagnosed with schizophrenia is choice B: 'It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.' This response educates the wife about the nature of schizophrenia, explaining that it is caused by a chemical imbalance in the brain leading to disorganized thinking, helping her understand the condition better. Choice A does not directly address the question and instead shifts the focus to a different aspect. Choice C gives false reassurance without providing necessary information about schizophrenia. Choice D deflects the responsibility of providing information to the psychologist instead of addressing the wife's concerns directly.
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