Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is conducting discharge teaching for a client with schizophrenia who plans to live in a group home. Which statement is most indicative of the need for careful follow-up after discharge?

• A. Crickets are a good source of protein.
• B. I have not heard any voices for a week.
• C. Only my belief in God can help me.
• D. Sometimes I have a hard time sitting still.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The statement 'Only my belief in God can help me' suggests a reliance on spiritual intervention over medical treatment, raising concerns about potential non-compliance. This indicates the need for close follow-up to ensure the client's well-being and adherence to the prescribed treatment plan. Choices A, B, and D do not directly address potential issues related to treatment compliance or the need for follow-up care after discharge.

2. A male client is admitted to a mental health unit on Friday afternoon and is very upset on Sunday because he has not had the opportunity to talk with the healthcare provider. Which response is best for the nurse to provide this client?

• A. Let me call and leave a message for your healthcare provider.
• B. The healthcare provider should be here on Monday morning.
• C. How can I help answer your questions?
• D. What concerns do you have at this time?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is best for the nurse to call the healthcare provider (A) because clients have the right to information about their treatment. Suggesting that the healthcare provider will be available the following day (B) does not provide immediate reassurance to the client. While offering to help answer questions (C) and inquiring about concerns (D) are supportive approaches, contacting the healthcare provider is the most appropriate action to address the client's immediate need for communication with their healthcare provider.

3. The wife of a client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia visits 2 days after her husband's admission and states to the nurse, 'Why isn't he eating? He's still talking about his food being poisoned.' Which of the following appraisals by the LPN/LVN is most accurate?

• A. The wife's inquiry is reasonable.
• B. Education about her husband's medication is needed.
• C. Her expectations of her husband are realistic.
• D. An increase in the client's medication is needed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The wife needs education about her husband's medication to understand how it affects his perceptions, including paranoid thoughts about food. Choice A is incorrect because the wife's inquiry reflects her lack of understanding of the situation rather than being reasonable. Choice C is incorrect as the husband's condition requires specialized care beyond what the wife might consider realistic. Choice D is incorrect as increasing medication should not be the immediate response; education and reassurance are key in this situation.

4. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) spends several hours a day washing his hands. What is the best nursing intervention?

• A. Restrict the client's access to soap and water.
• B. Encourage the client to discuss their compulsions.
• C. Allow the client to continue the behavior until ready to stop.
• D. Schedule activities that distract the client from hand-washing.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to discuss their compulsions is the best nursing intervention when caring for a client with OCD who spends excessive time on hand-washing. This approach can help the client identify underlying anxieties and triggers associated with the compulsive behavior. Restricting access to soap and water (Choice A) can lead to increased anxiety and worsen the obsession. Allowing the client to continue the behavior (Choice C) can perpetuate the compulsive cycle. Scheduling distracting activities (Choice D) may provide temporary relief but does not address the root cause of the behavior.

5. The nurse should hold the next scheduled dose of a client's haloperidol (Haldol) based on which assessment finding(s)?

• A. Dizziness when standing.
• B. Shuffling gait and hand tremors.
• C. Urinary retention.
• D. Fever of 102°F.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A fever (D) may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially fatal complication of antipsychotics. The healthcare provider should be contacted before administering the next dose of Haldol. Dizziness when standing (A), shuffling gait and hand tremors (B), and urinary retention (C) are all adverse effects of Haldol that, while concerning, do not pose immediate life-threatening risks compared to the potential severity of NMS indicated by a fever.

Similar Questions