the nurse is conducting discharge teaching for a client with schizophrenia who plans to live in a group home which statement is most indicative of the
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Mental Health HESI 2023

1. The nurse is conducting discharge teaching for a client with schizophrenia who plans to live in a group home. Which statement is most indicative of the need for careful follow-up after discharge?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The statement 'Only my belief in God can help me' suggests a reliance on spiritual intervention over medical treatment, raising concerns about potential non-compliance. This indicates the need for close follow-up to ensure the client's well-being and adherence to the prescribed treatment plan. Choices A, B, and D do not directly address potential issues related to treatment compliance or the need for follow-up care after discharge.

2. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) repeatedly checks the locks on the doors. What is the most therapeutic nursing intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most therapeutic nursing intervention for a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) who repeatedly checks locks is to encourage the client to discuss the thoughts and feelings behind the behavior. By exploring the underlying anxiety and triggers, the client can work towards understanding and managing their compulsions. Choice A is incorrect because allowing the client to continue the behavior does not address the root cause or help modify the behavior. Choice C is inappropriate as restricting access to locks can increase anxiety and worsen symptoms. Choice D of scheduling specific times for checking locks does not address the underlying psychological issues driving the behavior.

3. A homeless person who is in the manic phase of bipolar disorder is admitted to the mental health unit. Which laboratory finding obtained on admission is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased thyroid stimulating hormone level. Hyperthyroidism causes an increased level of serum thyroid hormones (T3 and T4), which inhibit the release of TSH. In this case, a decreased TSH level can indicate hyperthyroidism, which can present with manic behavior. Elevated liver function profile (B) is not directly related to the manic phase of bipolar disorder. Increased white blood cell count (C) typically indicates an infection or inflammation, not directly related to the manic phase. Decreased hematocrit and hemoglobin levels (D) may suggest anemia but are not as crucial in the context of a manic phase of bipolar disorder.

4. A male hospital employee is pushed out of the way by a female employee because of an oncoming gurney. The pushed employee becomes very angry and swings at the female employee. Both employees are referred for counseling with the staff psychiatric nurse. Which factor in the pushed employee's history is most related to the reaction that occurred?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Was physically abused by his mother.' A history of physical abuse can lead to heightened responses to physical contact. In this scenario, the employee's reaction of becoming very angry and swinging at the female employee after being pushed may be influenced by past experiences of physical abuse. This history can contribute to increased sensitivity to physical interactions and may trigger defensive or aggressive responses. Choices A, B, and D are less directly related to the employee's reaction in this specific context. While worrying about losing his job to a woman could contribute to underlying stress or insecurity, torturing animals as a child reflects a different type of behavioral issue, and hating to be touched by anyone suggests personal boundaries unrelated to the observed behavior in this scenario.

5. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an SSRI. After one week, the client reports feeling no improvement in mood. What is the best response by the RN?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.' This response is appropriate because SSRI and other antidepressants often require several weeks to exhibit improvement in mood. It is crucial to educate the client about this delay to manage expectations and promote adherence to the medication regimen. Choice B is incorrect as switching medications prematurely is not typically recommended after just one week. Choice C is incorrect because it sets unrealistic expectations for immediate improvement. Choice D is incorrect as it may come across as accusatory and should not be the initial response.

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