Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is performing intake interviews at a psychiatric clinic. A female client with a known history of drug abuse reports that she had a heart attack four years ago. Use of which substance abuse places the client at the highest risk for myocardial infarction?

• A. Benzodiazepines
• B. Marijuana
• C. Methamphetamine
• D. Alcohol

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Methamphetamine use is strongly associated with cardiovascular risks, including myocardial infarction, due to its stimulant effects on the heart. Benzodiazepines (Choice A) are not typically associated with an increased risk of myocardial infarction. Marijuana (Choice B) is not commonly linked to heart attacks, though it can have other health effects. Alcohol (Choice D) abuse can lead to cardiovascular issues, but methamphetamine has a more direct and potent impact on the heart, making it the highest risk factor in this scenario.

2. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an SSRI. After one week, the client reports feeling no improvement in mood. What is the best response by the RN?

• A. It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.
• B. We may need to switch to a different medication.
• C. You should feel better by now, let's discuss this with your doctor.
• D. Maybe you are not taking the medication as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.' This response is appropriate because SSRI and other antidepressants often require several weeks to exhibit improvement in mood. It is crucial to educate the client about this delay to manage expectations and promote adherence to the medication regimen. Choice B is incorrect as switching medications prematurely is not typically recommended after just one week. Choice C is incorrect because it sets unrealistic expectations for immediate improvement. Choice D is incorrect as it may come across as accusatory and should not be the initial response.

3. A 45-year-old male client tells the nurse that he used to believe that he was Jesus Christ, but now he knows he is not. Which response is best for the nurse to make?

• A. Did you really believe you were Jesus Christ?
• B. I think you're getting well.
• C. Others have had similar thoughts when under stress.
• D. Why did you think you were Jesus Christ?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the best response because it validates the client's experience by acknowledging that others have had similar thoughts when under stress. This response helps normalize the client's past experiences without judgment, fostering a supportive and empathetic environment. Choices A and D may come off as judgmental or confrontational, potentially making the client feel misunderstood or defensive. Choice B, 'I think you're getting well,' does not address the client's past belief or provide the understanding and validation that Choice C offers.

4. A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action will the nurse initiate?

• A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor closely.
• B. Immediately transfer the client to the ICU.
• C. Report the symptoms to the charge nurse and document in the client's chart.
• D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of such medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a severe and life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs. The major symptoms include fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and encephalopathy. Respiratory failure, cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, and/or renal failure can lead to death. This is an emergency situation requiring immediate critical care, thus the correct action is to transfer the client to the ICU (B). Seizure precautions (A) are not relevant in this scenario. Merely describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them (C) or taking no action assuming these are common side effects (D) fail to address the critical nature of the situation and the urgency of immediate intervention.

5. A client with bipolar disorder, manic phase, is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Which meal is most appropriate for this client?

• A. Spaghetti and meatballs
• B. Chicken salad sandwich
• C. Steak and potatoes
• D. Hamburger and fries

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A chicken salad sandwich (B) is the most appropriate choice as it is easy to eat on the go, which is important for a client in the manic phase who may have difficulty sitting still for a meal. Spaghetti and meatballs (A) and steak and potatoes (C) require more time and effort to eat, which may be challenging for a client experiencing mania. While hamburger and fries (D) could be an option, a chicken salad sandwich is a healthier and more manageable choice, considering the client's potential hyperactive state.

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