Nursing Elites

1. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with risperidone (Risperdal). The nurse notices that the client has a shuffling gait and tremors. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a PRN dose of an anticholinergic medication.
• B. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client.
• C. Assess the client's blood glucose level.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A shuffling gait and tremors may indicate extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) from risperidone. The nurse's priority action should be to administer an anticholinergic medication as it can help alleviate these symptoms associated with EPS. Documenting the findings and monitoring the client (Choice B) are important but addressing the immediate symptoms takes precedence. Assessing the client's blood glucose level (Choice C) is not directly related to the observed symptoms of shuffling gait and tremors. While notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important, it is not the priority action when dealing with EPS symptoms.

2. An 86-year-old female client with Alzheimer's disease is wandering the busy halls of the extended care facility and asks the nurse, "Where should I stand for the parade?" Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide?

• A. Anywhere you want to stand as long as you do not get hurt by those in the parade.
• B. You are confused because of all the activity in the hall. There is no parade.
• C. Let us go back to the activity room and see what is going on in there.
• D. Remember I told you that this is a nursing home and I am your nurse.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Redirecting the client to a less confusing environment can help reduce anxiety and reorient her to reality.

3. A teenaged client, a heroin addict, is admitted to the unit for detoxification. What intervention is most important for the nurse to initiate during the first 24 hours after admission?

• A. Assign the client to a teen support group.
• B. Assess intake and output.
• C. Monitor for wheezing and apnea.
• D. Limit visitors to family members only.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing intake and output is crucial during the first 24 hours after admission for detoxification. This helps the nurse monitor the client's hydration status and kidney function as the body goes through withdrawal from heroin. Option A is incorrect because joining a support group is beneficial but may not be the priority in the initial phase of detoxification. Option C, monitoring for wheezing and apnea, is important but not the most critical intervention during the first 24 hours. Option D, limiting visitors to family members only, is not directly related to the immediate needs of assessing intake and output.

4. A client with a history of alcohol dependence tells the nurse that he has been sober for three months but has recently started drinking again. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Ask the client why he started drinking again.
• B. Provide information about support groups for sobriety.
• C. Discuss the consequences of drinking on his health.
• D. Encourage the client to express his feelings about relapse.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging the client to express his feelings about relapse is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take in this situation. This approach allows the nurse to address the underlying emotions and factors contributing to the relapse. Choice A, asking the client why he started drinking again, may come across as judgmental and might not be as effective in exploring the client's emotions. Choice B, providing information about support groups, is important but should come after addressing the client's current emotional state. Choice C, discussing the consequences of drinking, may be necessary at some point, but initially, the focus should be on the client's feelings and emotions surrounding the relapse.

5. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a medical diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. During the admission procedure, the client looks up and states, 'No, it's not MY fault. You can't blame me. I didn't kill him, you did.' What action is best for the nurse to take?

• A. Reassure the client by telling him that his fear of the admission procedure is to be expected.
• B. Tell the client that no one is accusing him of murder and remind him that the hospital is a safe place.
• C. Assess the content of the hallucinations by asking the client what he is hearing.
• D. Ignore the behavior and make no response at all to his delusional statements.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to assess the content of the hallucinations by asking the client what he is hearing (C). Further assessment is needed to understand the nature of the client's delusions and hallucinations. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on reassuring the client about his fear, which is not addressing the underlying issue of the delusional statement. Choice B is incorrect as it argues with the client's delusion and offers false reassurance, which is not therapeutic. Choice D is incorrect as ignoring the behavior and making no response disregards the client's needs for assessment and support.

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