HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Questions
1. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with risperidone (Risperdal). The nurse notices that the client has a shuffling gait and tremors. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer a PRN dose of an anticholinergic medication.
- B. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client.
- C. Assess the client's blood glucose level.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A shuffling gait and tremors may indicate extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) from risperidone. The nurse's priority action should be to administer an anticholinergic medication as it can help alleviate these symptoms associated with EPS. Documenting the findings and monitoring the client (Choice B) are important but addressing the immediate symptoms takes precedence. Assessing the client's blood glucose level (Choice C) is not directly related to the observed symptoms of shuffling gait and tremors. While notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important, it is not the priority action when dealing with EPS symptoms.
2. A client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia is still withdrawn, unkempt, and unmotivated to get out of bed. A mental health aide asks the nurse why the client is this way after being on fluphenazine (Prolix) 10 mg for 7 days. The LPN/LVN should tell the health aide:
- A. Prolixin is the most effective with positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
- B. The client will be less withdrawn and unmotivated when the Prolixin takes effect.
- C. The client's Prolixin dose probably needs to be increased again.
- D. Lack of motivation is a common side effect of the Prolixin.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Prolixin is more effective with positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions, rather than negative symptoms like withdrawal and lack of motivation.
3. A client who has just been sexually assaulted is calm and quiet. The nurse analyzes this behavior as indicating which defense mechanism?
- A. Denial
- B. Projection
- C. Rationalization
- D. Intellectualization
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Denial. In this situation, the client's calm and quiet demeanor after a traumatic event like sexual assault may indicate denial, a defense mechanism where the individual refuses to acknowledge the reality of the distressing event. Choice B, Projection, involves attributing one's thoughts or feelings to others. Choice C, Rationalization, is a defense mechanism where logical reasoning is used to justify behaviors or feelings. Choice D, Intellectualization, is a defense mechanism where excessive reasoning or logic is used to avoid uncomfortable emotions.
4. A 25-year-old female client has been particularly restless, and the nurse finds her trying to leave the psychiatric unit. She tells the nurse, 'Please let me go! I must leave because the secret police are after me.' Which response is best for the nurse to make?
- A. No one is after you; you're safe here.
- B. You'll feel better after you have rested.
- C. I know you must feel lonely and frightened.
- D. Come with me to your room, and I will sit with you.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the best response for the nurse is to offer presence and a safe environment without validating the delusion or arguing with the client. By inviting the client to the room and offering to sit with her, the nurse is providing support and reassurance. Choice A is incorrect because directly denying the client's belief may escalate the situation. Choice B is inappropriate as it dismisses the client's concerns without addressing the underlying issue. Choice C acknowledges the client's feelings but does not provide immediate support or safety, unlike Choice D which offers both.
5. During the admission assessment, a female client requests that her husband be allowed to stay in the room. While interviewing the client, the nurse notes a discrepancy between the client's verbal and nonverbal communication. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Pay close attention and document the nonverbal messages
- B. Ask the client's husband to interpret the discrepancy
- C. Ignore the nonverbal behavior and focus on the client's verbal messages
- D. Integrate the verbal and nonverbal messages and interpret them as one
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Noting both verbal and nonverbal cues is crucial to fully understand the client's condition and any potential underlying issues. Verbal communication may not always align with nonverbal cues, which can provide valuable insights into the client's emotional state and concerns. By paying close attention to and documenting the nonverbal messages, the nurse can gather a more comprehensive understanding of the client's situation. Asking the client's husband to interpret the discrepancy may not be appropriate as it could lead to misinterpretation or breach of confidentiality. Ignoring the nonverbal behavior could result in missing essential cues affecting the overall assessment. Integrating both verbal and nonverbal messages helps in forming a holistic view of the client's needs and concerns, enabling better care delivery.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access