Nursing Elites

1. Unresolved feelings related to loss are most likely to be recognized during which phase of the therapeutic nurse-client relationship?

• A. Working
• B. Trusting
• C. Orientation
• D. Termination

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Unresolved feelings related to loss are often recognized and explored during the termination phase of the nurse-client relationship. This phase involves preparing the client for separation from the nurse, which can trigger unresolved feelings related to loss. During the termination phase, clients may confront their emotions about ending the therapeutic relationship and may also revisit unresolved issues or losses that have surfaced during the course of therapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the working phase focuses on active problem-solving and goal achievement, the trusting phase emphasizes establishing rapport and building trust, and the orientation phase involves initial introductions and orientation to the therapeutic process, respectively.

2. At a support meeting of parents of a teenager with polysubstance dependency, a parent states, 'Each time my son tries to quit taking drugs, he gets so depressed that I'm afraid he will commit suicide.' The nurse's response should be based on which information?

• A. Addiction is a chronic, incurable disease.
• B. Tolerance to the effects of drugs causes feelings of depression.
• C. Feelings of depression frequently lead to drug abuse and addiction.
• D. Careful monitoring should be provided during withdrawal from the drugs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response in this situation should focus on the connection between feelings of depression and drug abuse. Choice A is incorrect because addiction is treatable, not incurable. Choice B is incorrect as tolerance does not directly cause depression. Choice D is not the best response as the parent's concern is about the son's depression leading to suicidal thoughts, not just the withdrawal process.

3. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) spends several hours a day washing his hands. What is the most therapeutic nursing intervention?

• A. Allow the client to continue the behavior to reduce anxiety.
• B. Schedule specific times for handwashing.
• C. Encourage the client to discuss the thoughts and feelings behind the behavior.
• D. Restrict the client's access to soap and water.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to discuss the thoughts and feelings behind the behavior is the most therapeutic nursing intervention for a client with OCD who excessively washes hands. This approach can help the client understand the underlying reasons for the behavior, address the associated anxiety, and work toward behavior modification. Choices A, allowing the behavior to continue, and D, restricting access to soap and water, do not address the root cause of the behavior and may exacerbate anxiety. Choice B, scheduling specific times for handwashing, does not address the underlying emotional factors contributing to the behavior and may not effectively reduce the client's anxiety.

4. A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action will the nurse initiate?

• A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor closely.
• B. Immediately transfer the client to the ICU.
• C. Report the symptoms to the charge nurse and document in the client's chart.
• D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of such medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a severe and life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs. The major symptoms include fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and encephalopathy. Respiratory failure, cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, and/or renal failure can lead to death. This is an emergency situation requiring immediate critical care, thus the correct action is to transfer the client to the ICU (B). Seizure precautions (A) are not relevant in this scenario. Merely describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them (C) or taking no action assuming these are common side effects (D) fail to address the critical nature of the situation and the urgency of immediate intervention.

5. The community health nurse talks to a male client who has bipolar disorder. The client explains that he sleeps 4 to 5 hours a night and is working with his partner to start two new businesses and build an empire. The client stopped taking his medications several days ago. What nursing problem has the highest priority?

• A. Excessive work activity.
• B. Decreased need for sleep.
• C. Medication management.
• D. Inflated self-esteem.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority is to manage the client's medication adherence to prevent escalation of manic behavior. Inflated self-esteem is the highest priority as it indicates the client's potential for harmful behaviors due to lack of medication compliance. While excessive work activity and decreased need for sleep are characteristics of mania, they are not as immediately concerning as the risk of harm related to inflated self-esteem.

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