Nursing Elites

1. The LPN/LVN is assessing a client who is taking an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following symptoms is uniquely indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) and requires immediate attention?

• A. Very high temperature
• B. Muscular rigidity
• C. Tremors
• D. Altered consciousness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A very high temperature is a hallmark symptom of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS), which is a rare but potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. This symptom is uniquely indicative of NMS and requires immediate medical attention. Muscular rigidity, tremors, and altered consciousness can be seen in other conditions but are not as specifically linked to NMS as a very high temperature.

2. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric inpatient unit with a bandaged flesh wound after attempting to shoot himself. He was divorced one year ago, lost his job four months ago, and suffered a breakup of his current relationship last week. What is the most likely source of this client's current feelings of depression?

• A. Feelings of frustration.
• B. A sense of loss.
• C. Poor self-esteem.
• D. A lack of intimate relationships.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's recent life events, including divorce, job loss, and relationship breakup, all contribute to a significant sense of loss, which is likely the source of his current feelings of depression. While feelings of frustration and poor self-esteem could be present, the major life events the client has experienced are more closely associated with a sense of loss. A lack of intimate relationships is not the primary factor contributing to his depression in this scenario.

3. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Which side effect should the nurse educate the client about?

• A. Hypertension.
• B. Sexual dysfunction.
• C. Increased appetite.
• D. Weight gain.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sexual dysfunction. Sexual dysfunction is a common side effect of SSRIs. While hypertension (A) can occur with other medications, it is not typically associated with SSRIs. Increased appetite (C) and weight gain (D) are potential side effects of some antidepressants, but sexual dysfunction is more specific to SSRIs. Therefore, the nurse should educate the client about the risk of sexual dysfunction when taking an SSRI.

4. A 19-year-old female client with a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa wants to help serve dinner trays to other clients on a psychiatric unit. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Encourage the client's self-motivation by asking her to assist with other activities.
• B. Provide an alternative suggestion for the client to participate in the unit's activities.
• C. Allow the client to serve dinner trays to other clients but monitor closely for any signs of distress.
• D. Explain to the client that she needs to focus on her own recovery and cannot participate in serving dinner trays.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with anorexia should not be allowed to plan or prepare food for unit activities, as this can reinforce their perception of self-control. Allowing the client to serve dinner trays (C) may trigger distress or unhealthy behaviors. Therefore, it is best to provide an alternative suggestion for the client to participate in the unit's activities (B). Encouraging the client to assist with other activities (A) may inadvertently reinforce negative behaviors related to food. Explaining to the client that she cannot participate in serving dinner trays (D) without offering an alternative does not address the client's desire to help and may lead to feelings of rejection.

5. A client with Alzheimer's disease is becoming increasingly agitated and combative in the late afternoon. What is the most appropriate intervention?

• A. Offer a sedative medication to calm the client.
• B. Encourage the client to rest in a quiet, low-stimulation environment.
• C. Use reality orientation to reduce confusion.
• D. Engage the client in physical activity to reduce agitation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to rest in a quiet, low-stimulation environment is the most appropriate intervention for a client with Alzheimer's disease who is becoming agitated and combative in the late afternoon. This approach helps reduce agitation and prevent overstimulation, providing a calming and soothing environment for the client. Offering a sedative medication (Choice A) should be avoided as it may have side effects and should only be considered as a last resort. Reality orientation (Choice C) may increase confusion and distress in clients with advanced Alzheimer's disease. Engaging the client in physical activity (Choice D) could potentially escalate the agitation rather than reduce it in this scenario.

Similar Questions