the lpnlvn is assessing a client who is taking an antipsychotic medication which of the following symptoms is uniquely indicative of neuroleptic malig
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Mental Health HESI 2023

1. The LPN/LVN is assessing a client who is taking an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following symptoms is uniquely indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) and requires immediate attention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A very high temperature is a hallmark symptom of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS), which is a rare but potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. This symptom is uniquely indicative of NMS and requires immediate medical attention. Muscular rigidity, tremors, and altered consciousness can be seen in other conditions but are not as specifically linked to NMS as a very high temperature.

2. The client is planning discharge for a male client with schizophrenia. The client insists that he is returning to his apartment, although the healthcare provider informed him that he will be moving to a boarding home. What is the most important nursing diagnosis for discharge planning?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best nursing diagnosis is (A) because the client is unable to acknowledge the move to a boarding home. While (B, C, and D) are potential nursing diagnoses, denial is the most critical as it is a defense mechanism preventing the client from addressing his feelings regarding the change in living arrangements.

3. The nurse is preparing to administer phenelzine sulfate (Nardil) to a client on the psychiatric unit. Which complaint related to administration of this drug should the nurse expect this client to make?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dry mouth is a common side effect of MAO inhibitors like phenelzine due to their anticholinergic effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as indigestion, diarrhea, and pink urine are not commonly associated side effects of phenelzine.

4. A client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reports having frequent nightmares. What is the nurse's best response?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to discuss relaxation techniques with the client that can help reduce anxiety and stress before bedtime. This approach may potentially decrease the frequency of nightmares by promoting a more calming and peaceful pre-sleep routine. Choice A is incorrect because while nightmares can be common with PTSD, it is not guaranteed that they will decrease over time. Choice B is incorrect as avoiding thinking about the trauma may not address the underlying issue causing the nightmares. Choice D is incorrect as prescribing a sleep aid should be considered as a last resort after trying non-pharmacological interventions.

5. A LPN/LVN is preparing to care for a dying client, and several family members are at the client's bedside. Select the therapeutic techniques that the nurse would use when communicating with the family. Select one that does not apply.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the expression of feelings, concerns, and fears is a therapeutic technique that helps the family cope with the situation and express their emotions. This approach fosters trust and emotional release. Making decisions for the family is not appropriate because it takes away their autonomy and control during a difficult time. Discouraging reminiscing may hinder the family's coping mechanisms by discouraging them from sharing memories and finding comfort in the past. Explaining everything that is happening to all family members promotes transparency and understanding, which can help reduce anxiety and fear.

Similar Questions

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