Nursing Elites

1. The LPN/LVN is assessing a client who is taking an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following symptoms is uniquely indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) and requires immediate attention?

• A. Very high temperature
• B. Muscular rigidity
• C. Tremors
• D. Altered consciousness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A very high temperature is a hallmark symptom of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS), which is a rare but potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. This symptom is uniquely indicative of NMS and requires immediate medical attention. Muscular rigidity, tremors, and altered consciousness can be seen in other conditions but are not as specifically linked to NMS as a very high temperature.

2. A 22-year-old male client is admitted to the emergency center following a suicide attempt. His records reveal that this is his third suicide attempt in the past two years. He is conscious, but does not respond to verbal commands for treatment. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to prepare the client for gastric lavage?

• A. He ingested the drug 3 hours prior to admission to the emergency center.
• B. The family reports that he took an entire bottle of acetaminophen (Tylenol).
• C. He is unresponsive to instructions and is unable to cooperate with emetic therapy.
• D. Those with repeated suicide attempts desire punishment to relieve their guilt.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client's unresponsiveness and inability to cooperate with emetic therapy indicate the need for gastric lavage. Gastric lavage is a procedure used to remove toxic substances from the stomach in cases where the patient is unresponsive or unable to cooperate. Choice A is incorrect as the time of ingestion alone does not indicate the need for gastric lavage. Choice B, although indicating a significant overdose, does not directly necessitate gastric lavage. Choice D is incorrect as it provides information about the possible psychological motivation for repeated suicide attempts, but it is not directly related to the immediate need for gastric lavage in this scenario.

3. A client with depression is started on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). The client asks, 'How long will it take for this medication to work?' What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. It may take 2 to 4 weeks before you start feeling better.
• B. You should start feeling better within a few days.
• C. The medication works immediately to improve your mood.
• D. It may take up to 8 weeks for the medication to take full effect.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Explaining that it may take up to 8 weeks for the medication to take full effect provides the client with a realistic expectation. SSRI medications typically require time to build up in the body and exert their therapeutic effects. Choice A is incorrect as it underestimates the time frame required for the medication to work. Choice B is incorrect as SSRIs do not produce immediate effects. Choice C is incorrect as it falsely states that the medication works immediately, which is not true for SSRIs.

4. A teenaged male client is admitted to the postoperative unit following open reduction of a fractured femur which occurred when he fell down the stairs at a party. The nurse notices needle marks on the client's arms and plans to observe for narcotic withdrawal. Early signs of narcotic withdrawal include which assessment findings?

• A. Vomiting, seizures, and loss of consciousness.
• B. Depression, fatigue, and dizziness.
• C. Hypotension, shallow respirations, and dilated pupils.
• D. Agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps are early signs of narcotic withdrawal. Vomiting, seizures, and loss of consciousness (Option A) are more indicative of severe withdrawal or overdose symptoms. Depression, fatigue, and dizziness (Option B) are not typically early signs of narcotic withdrawal. Hypotension, shallow respirations, and dilated pupils (Option C) are more associated with opioid overdose rather than withdrawal. Monitoring for agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps is crucial for managing narcotic withdrawal symptoms effectively.

5. A 35-year-old male client on the psychiatric ward of a general hospital believes that someone is trying to poison him. The nurse understands that a client's delusions are most likely related to his

• A. early childhood experiences involving authority issues.
• B. anger about being hospitalized.
• C. low self-esteem.
• D. phobic fear of food.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: low self-esteem. Delusions of persecution, like being poisoned, are often rooted in underlying issues of low self-esteem and trust. Option A is incorrect because the delusion is not necessarily related to early childhood experiences involving authority issues. Option B is incorrect as there is no information provided that suggests the client's delusion is driven by anger about being hospitalized. Option D is incorrect as the delusion is about being poisoned, not a phobic fear of food.

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