Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of alcohol dependence tells the nurse that he has been sober for three months but has recently started drinking again. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Ask the client why he started drinking again.
• B. Provide information about support groups for sobriety.
• C. Discuss the consequences of drinking on his health.
• D. Encourage the client to express his feelings about relapse.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging the client to express his feelings about relapse is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take in this situation. This approach allows the nurse to address the underlying emotions and factors contributing to the relapse. Choice A, asking the client why he started drinking again, may come across as judgmental and might not be as effective in exploring the client's emotions. Choice B, providing information about support groups, is important but should come after addressing the client's current emotional state. Choice C, discussing the consequences of drinking, may be necessary at some point, but initially, the focus should be on the client's feelings and emotions surrounding the relapse.

2. The LPN/LVN should include which interventions in the plan of care for a severely depressed client with neurovegetative symptoms? (select one that does not apply.)

• A. Permit rest periods as needed.
• B. Speaking slowly and simply.
• C. Place the client on suicide precautions.
• D. Limit and discourage food and fluid intake.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a severely depressed client with neurovegetative symptoms, the care plan should include rest, simple communication, suicide precautions, monitoring intake, and encouraging mild exercise. Limiting and discouraging food and fluid intake is not appropriate as proper nutrition and hydration are essential for overall well-being. This choice could lead to further complications and is not recommended in the care of a depressed client.

3. The nurse is caring for a client who received the first-time electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) a half hour ago. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Offer oral fluids.
• B. Monitor vital signs.
• C. Evaluate ECT effectiveness.
• D. Encourage group participation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a client receives electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), the nurse's priority should be to monitor vital signs. This is important to ensure the client's physical stability and detect any immediate complications post-procedure. Offering oral fluids, evaluating ECT effectiveness, and encouraging group participation are all important aspects of care but monitoring vital signs takes precedence in the immediate post-ECT period.

4. A client who has been diagnosed with borderline personality disorder is exhibiting manipulative behavior. What is the most important intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement?

• A. Set clear, consistent limits on manipulative behavior.
• B. Ignore the manipulative behavior to avoid reinforcing it.
• C. Remind the client that manipulative behavior is unacceptable.
• D. Explain the consequences of manipulative behavior to the client.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Setting clear, consistent limits on manipulative behavior is the most important intervention for a client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder. This approach helps establish boundaries, maintain a therapeutic environment, and provide structure for the client. Choice B is incorrect because ignoring manipulative behavior can lead to its reinforcement. Choice C, while important, may not be as effective as directly setting limits. Choice D focuses on consequences rather than immediate intervention, making it less effective than setting clear limits.

5. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with haloperidol (Haldol). The LPN/LVN observes the client pacing in the hallway and appearing anxious. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Ask the client to sit down and relax.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of antipsychotic medication.
• C. Encourage the client to talk about what is making him anxious.
• D. Monitor the client for adverse reactions to the medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of antipsychotic medication is the first action the nurse should take to manage symptoms of anxiety in a client being treated with haloperidol. The priority is to address the client's escalating anxiety and pacing behavior, which can be managed effectively by providing additional antipsychotic medication. Asking the client to sit down and relax (Choice A) may not be effective if the anxiety is due to inadequate medication levels. Encouraging the client to talk about what is making him anxious (Choice C) may not be beneficial in this acute situation and can be considered after addressing the immediate need for symptom management. Monitoring for adverse reactions (Choice D) is important but is not the first action to take when the client is showing signs of increasing anxiety and agitation.

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