Nursing Elites

1. A female victim of sexual assault is being seen in the crisis center. The client states that she still feels 'as though the rape just happened yesterday,' even though it has been a few months since the incident. The appropriate nursing response is which of the following?

• A. You need to try to be realistic. The rape did not just occur.
• B. It will take some time to get over these feelings about your rape.
• C. Tell me more about the incident that causes you to feel like the rape just occurred.
• D. What do you think you can do to alleviate some of your fears about being raped again?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to encourage the client to talk about the event that makes them feel as though the rape just occurred. This approach can help the client process their feelings and experiences, which is crucial in dealing with trauma. Choice A is dismissive and negates the client's feelings, which can be harmful. Choice B, although acknowledging the time needed to heal, does not actively address the client's current feelings. Choice D shifts the focus to future fears rather than addressing the client's current emotional state.

2. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for recurrent negative symptoms of chronic schizophrenia and medication adjustment of risperidone (Risperdal). When the client walks to the nurse's station in a laterally contracted position, he states that something has made his body contort into a monster. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Medicate the client with the prescribed antipsychotic thioridazine (Mellaril).
• B. Offer the client a prescribed physical therapy hot pack for muscle spasms.
• C. Direct the client to occupational therapy to distract him from somatic complaints.
• D. Administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia. Dystonia can be a side effect of antipsychotic medications like risperidone, leading to involuntary muscle contractions and abnormal postures. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to treat dystonia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because thioridazine is not the appropriate medication in this case, a hot pack would not address the underlying issue of dystonia, and occupational therapy is not the primary intervention for addressing acute dystonic reactions.

3. A client is preparing to attend a Gamblers Anonymous meeting for the first time. The prototype used by this group is the 12-step program developed by Alcoholics Anonymous. Number in order of priority how the steps would be addressed.

• A. Admitting to oneself and to another human being the exact nature of one's wrongs
• B. Acknowledging that one is entirely ready to have his or her defects of character removed
• C. Admitting that oneself is powerless over gambling and that one's life has become unmanageable
• D. Making an effort to practice the 12-step principles in all affairs, and to carry out this message to other compulsive gamblers

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct order of addressing the 12-step program typically begins with admitting powerlessness over the addiction and recognizing the unmanageability of one's life (Choice C). Following this, individuals move towards acknowledging their wrongs and sharing them with others (Choice A), then being ready to work on changing their character defects (Choice B), and finally, integrating the 12-step principles into their daily lives and helping others (Choice D). Choices A, B, and C are important steps in the program but come after admitting powerlessness and unmanageability, which is why Choice D is the correct answer.

4. The nurse is taking a history for a female client who is requesting a routine female exam. Which assessment finding requires follow-up?

• A. Menstruation onset at age 9.
• B. Contraceptive method includes condoms only.
• C. Menstrual cycle occurs every 35 days.
• D. 'Black-out' after one drink last night on a date.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Experiencing a 'black-out' after consuming only one drink is highly unusual and may indicate the client was drugged, necessitating immediate follow-up. Menstruation onset at age 9 and a menstrual cycle occurring every 35 days, although on the outer ranges of 'average,' are within acceptable norms. Relying solely on condoms as a contraceptive method increases the risk of conception.

5. A client who is being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness. What action should the LPN/LVN take?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately and prepare for administration of an antidote.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider of the symptoms prior to the next administration of the drug.
• C. Record the symptoms as normal side effects and continue administration of the prescribed dosage.
• D. Hold the medication and refuse to administer additional amounts of the drug.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops symptoms like diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness, it could indicate lithium toxicity. The appropriate action for the LPN/LVN is to notify the healthcare provider immediately of these symptoms before the next administration of the drug. This prompt communication is crucial to ensure that the healthcare provider can assess the situation, adjust the treatment plan if necessary, and prevent potential complications associated with lithium toxicity. Option A is incorrect because administering an antidote should be based on the healthcare provider's assessment. Option C is incorrect as these symptoms are not normal side effects and could indicate a serious issue. Option D is incorrect because refusing to administer the drug without consulting the healthcare provider could delay necessary interventions.

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