an elderly female client with advanced dementia is admitted to the hospital with a fractured hip the client repeatedly tells the staff take me home i
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Mental Health Practice Exam

1. An elderly female client with advanced dementia is admitted to the hospital with a fractured hip. The client repeatedly tells the staff, 'Take me home. I want my Mommy.' Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to tell the client that the nurse is there and will help her. Providing reassurance and presence is more therapeutic in dealing with a client who has advanced dementia and is expressing a desire to go home and be with her mother. Option A might not be effective as continuously orienting the client may not alleviate her distress. Option C, reminding the client that her mother is no longer living, can be distressing and may not be appropriate in this situation. Option D, explaining the seriousness of the injury and need for hospitalization, is not the best response as it does not address the client's emotional needs at that moment.

2. Several clients with chronic mental illness and multiple substance abuse histories live in a group residential home and attend a daycare mental health facility where group and individual therapies are provided. The RN finds the common bathroom at the facility with sputum on the walls, urine in the sink and on the floors, and the toilet stopped up with tissue, paper towels, and feces. What is the priority issue that the RN should address?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority issue that the RN should address is infection control. The unsanitary conditions in the bathroom, with sputum on the walls, urine in the sink and on the floors, and the toilet clogged with tissue, paper towels, and feces, pose a significant health risk to all residents and staff. Addressing infection control is crucial to prevent the spread of diseases and ensure the well-being of everyone in the facility. Medication non-compliance is important but not the priority in this situation. The number of bathroom facilities, while relevant, is not the immediate concern when faced with unsanitary conditions. Acting out behaviors, though a valid concern in mental health settings, are not the priority when faced with such unsanitary and potentially infectious conditions.

3. The RN is preparing to administer a prescribed dose of haloperidol (Haldol) to a client with schizophrenia. The client begins to exhibit muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status. What action should the RN take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status are symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications. The RN should hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider immediately. Option A is incorrect because administering more of the medication can worsen the symptoms. Option B is not the first priority when the client is experiencing symptoms of NMS. Option D is incorrect as addressing the fever alone does not address the underlying issue of NMS caused by haloperidol.

4. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) spends several hours a day washing his hands. What is the most therapeutic nursing intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to discuss the thoughts and feelings behind the behavior is the most therapeutic nursing intervention for a client with OCD who excessively washes hands. This approach can help the client understand the underlying reasons for the behavior, address the associated anxiety, and work toward behavior modification. Choices A, allowing the behavior to continue, and D, restricting access to soap and water, do not address the root cause of the behavior and may exacerbate anxiety. Choice B, scheduling specific times for handwashing, does not address the underlying emotional factors contributing to the behavior and may not effectively reduce the client's anxiety.

5. The nurse is admitting a male client who takes lithium carbonate (Eskalith) twice a day. Which information should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nausea and vomiting should be reported immediately because they could indicate lithium toxicity, which requires urgent medical attention to prevent more severe effects. Short-term memory loss, depressed affect, and weight gain are common side effects of lithium but do not require immediate medical attention compared to symptoms of toxicity like nausea and vomiting.

Similar Questions

An 86-year-old female client with Alzheimer's disease is wandering the busy halls of the extended care facility and asks the nurse, 'Where should I stand for the parade?' Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
When a client with major depressive disorder expresses feelings of worthlessness and hopelessness, what is the nurse's priority intervention?
An outpatient clinic that has been receiving haloperidol (Haldol) for 2 days develops muscular rigidity, altered consciousness, a temperature of 103, and trouble breathing on day 3. The LPN/LVN interprets these findings as indicating which of the following?
When caring for a client with borderline personality disorder, what is the most effective nursing intervention?
A newly admitted client describes her mission in life as one of saving her son by eliminating the 'provocative sluts' of the world. There are several attractive young women on the unit. What should the LPN/LVN do first?

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses