HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Exam
1. An elderly female client with advanced dementia is admitted to the hospital with a fractured hip. The client repeatedly tells the staff, 'Take me home. I want my Mommy.' Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide?
- A. Orient the client to the time, place, and person.
- B. Tell the client that the nurse is there and will help her.
- C. Remind the client that her mother is no longer living.
- D. Explain the seriousness of her injury and need for hospitalization.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to tell the client that the nurse is there and will help her. Providing reassurance and presence is more therapeutic in dealing with a client who has advanced dementia and is expressing a desire to go home and be with her mother. Option A might not be effective as continuously orienting the client may not alleviate her distress. Option C, reminding the client that her mother is no longer living, can be distressing and may not be appropriate in this situation. Option D, explaining the seriousness of the injury and need for hospitalization, is not the best response as it does not address the client's emotional needs at that moment.
2. An LPN/LVN is caring for a suicidal client. The appropriate nursing intervention in dealing with this client is to:
- A. Demonstrate confidence in the client's ability to deal with stressors
- B. Provide hope and reassurance that the problems will resolve themselves
- C. Display an attitude of detachment, confrontation, and efficiency
- D. Provide authority, action, and participation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When caring for a suicidal client, providing authority, taking action, and encouraging the client's participation in their care are essential. Choice A is incorrect as it may not be sufficient for the critical situation of a suicidal client. Choice B, while offering hope, may not address the immediate risk of harm. Choice C's attitude of detachment and confrontation can be counterproductive in establishing trust and rapport with the client. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to provide authority, take action to ensure safety, and involve the client in the care process.
3. A female client on a psychiatric unit is sweating profusely while she vigorously does push-ups and then runs the length of the corridor several times before crashing into furniture in the sitting room. Picking herself up, she begins to toss chairs aside, looking for a red one to sit in. When another client objects to the disturbance, the client shouts, 'I am the boss here. I do what I want.' Which nursing problem best supports these observations?
- A. Deficient diversional activity related to excess energy level.
- B. Risk for other-directed violence related to disruptive behavior.
- C. Risk for activity intolerance related to hyperactivity.
- D. Disturbed personal identity related to grandiosity.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client's disruptive and potentially harmful behavior, including tossing chairs and claiming authority, indicates a risk for other-directed violence. This behavior poses a threat to the safety of the client and others. While the client may have excess energy, the primary concern is the potential for violence, not just a lack of diversional activities (Choice A). The client's behavior is not solely due to hyperactivity leading to activity intolerance (Choice C) or grandiosity affecting personal identity (Choice D), making these options less appropriate in this context.
4. A client with schizophrenia is being discharged with a prescription for risperidone (Risperdal). What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide?
- A. Stop taking the medication if you start feeling better.
- B. Be aware of the potential for weight gain with this medication.
- C. Report any unusual muscle movements immediately.
- D. You can drive as soon as you feel ready.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Report any unusual muscle movements immediately." Unusual muscle movements may indicate extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) or tardive dyskinesia, which are serious side effects of antipsychotic medications like risperidone. It is crucial to address these symptoms promptly to prevent long-term effects. Choice A is incorrect because stopping the medication suddenly can be dangerous and should only be done under medical supervision. Choice B, while important, is not the most critical instruction in this scenario. Choice D is also incorrect as the ability to drive may be affected by the medication and should be discussed with a healthcare provider.
5. A nurse is assessing a client with dementia who is showing signs of increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon. What is the most likely explanation for the client's symptoms?
- A. Anxiety
- B. Depression
- C. Sun-downing syndrome
- D. Medication side effects
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sun-downing syndrome. Sun-downing syndrome is a phenomenon commonly seen in individuals with dementia, where they exhibit increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon or evening. This pattern of behavior is believed to be linked to disruptions in the circadian rhythm and can be triggered by factors such as fatigue, low lighting, or increased shadows during the evening. Choices A and B, anxiety and depression, may be comorbid conditions in individuals with dementia but are not the primary explanation for the symptoms described. While medication side effects (Choice D) should always be considered in a client with dementia, given the time-specific nature of the symptoms, sun-downing syndrome is the most likely explanation in this case.
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