Nursing Elites

1. A client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed buspirone (BuSpar). The nurse should include which information in the client's discharge teaching?

• A. This medication can cause physical dependence.
• B. It may take 2 to 4 weeks before you notice improvement.
• C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• D. You may experience sedation as a side effect.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Buspirone takes time to become fully effective, so the client should be informed to expect a gradual improvement in anxiety symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because buspirone is not associated with physical dependence. Choice C is not directly related to buspirone but is generally a good practice when taking any medication. Choice D is less common with buspirone compared to other anxiety medications.

2. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an SSRI. After one week, the client reports feeling no improvement in mood. What is the best response by the RN?

• A. It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.
• B. We may need to switch to a different medication.
• C. You should feel better by now, let's discuss this with your doctor.
• D. Maybe you are not taking the medication as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.' This response is appropriate because SSRI and other antidepressants often require several weeks to exhibit improvement in mood. It is crucial to educate the client about this delay to manage expectations and promote adherence to the medication regimen. Choice B is incorrect as switching medications prematurely is not typically recommended after just one week. Choice C is incorrect because it sets unrealistic expectations for immediate improvement. Choice D is incorrect as it may come across as accusatory and should not be the initial response.

3. The charge nurse is collaborating with the nursing staff about the plan of care for a client who is very depressed. What is the most important intervention to implement during the first 48 hours after the client's admission to the unit?

• A. Monitor appetite and observe intake during meals.
• B. Maintain safety in the client's environment.
• C. Provide ongoing, supportive contact.
• D. Encourage participation in activities.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most critical intervention to implement during the first 48 hours after admitting a depressed client is to maintain safety (B). Depression increases the risk of suicide; hence ensuring a safe environment is the priority. While monitoring appetite (A), providing supportive contact (C), and encouraging participation in activities (D) are important aspects of care for a depressed client, ensuring safety takes precedence in the initial phase of admission.

4. A female client with major depression is prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). She reports experiencing increased energy but still feels sad and hopeless. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. ''These feelings are normal and will pass with time.''
• B. ''Increased energy can sometimes lead to increased risk for self-harm.''
• C. ''The medication needs more time to be effective.''
• D. ''Let's talk about the things that make you feel this way.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Increased energy without improvement in mood can increase the risk of self-harm in clients with depression. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize this potential risk and closely monitor the client for any signs of self-harm. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the client's persistent feelings of sadness and hopelessness as normal may invalidate her experiences. Choice C is incorrect as fluoxetine (Prozac) typically starts showing effectiveness within a few weeks, so further delay is concerning. Choice D is incorrect because while discussing the client's feelings is important, the immediate focus should be on addressing the potential risk of self-harm associated with increased energy.

5. An elderly client was prescribed Ativan 1 mg three times a day to help calm her anxiety after her husband's death. The next day the client calls her daughter asking when she is picking her up to go to the graveside. The client says she has been walking up and down the driveway for the past hour waiting for her daughter. Noting the client's agitation, hyperactivity, and insistence, the daughter calls the nurse to report her mother's behavior. What should the nurse suspect?

• A. The client is manic and may need a sleeping pill
• B. The client is experiencing a medication interaction and should go to the ED
• C. The client is experiencing a paradoxical reaction to the Ativan and should stop the new medication immediately
• D. The client is overcome by grief and probably needs an antidepressant

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A paradoxical reaction to Ativan, where the drug causes opposite effects such as increased agitation and hyperactivity, should prompt immediate cessation of the medication. In this scenario, the client was prescribed Ativan to help calm her anxiety, but instead, she is displaying symptoms of increased agitation and hyperactivity, indicating a paradoxical reaction. Choice A is incorrect because the symptoms described do not align with mania. Choice B is incorrect as there is no mention of a medication interaction. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of a paradoxical reaction rather than overwhelming grief.

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