Nursing Elites

1. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) spends hours each day washing their hands. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate initially?

• A. Allow the client to continue the behavior to reduce anxiety.
• B. Set strict limits on the time allowed for handwashing.
• C. Distract the client with other activities.
• D. Encourage the client to participate in a support group.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Initially, it is most appropriate to allow the client to continue the behavior to reduce anxiety (A). For clients with OCD, abruptly stopping compulsive behaviors can lead to increased anxiety and distress. Setting strict limits (B) may exacerbate anxiety at first. Distraction with other activities (C) may not address the underlying issue effectively. While support groups (D) can be beneficial, they are typically introduced after establishing trust and gradually working on reducing compulsive behaviors.

2. The nurse is leading a 'current events group' with chronic psychiatric clients. One group member states, 'Clara Barton was my nurse during my last hospitalization. She was a very mean nurse and wasn't nice to me.' Which response would be best for the nurse to make?

• A. 'Clara Barton was not your nurse.'
• B. 'What did she do to you that was so mean?'
• C. 'I didn't know that Clara Barton was a nurse.'
• D. 'Clara Barton started the American Red Cross.'

Correct answer: D

Rationale: (D) presents the reality of the situation in relation to American culture. The fact that Clara Barton was a nurse during the Civil War should be addressed on an individual basis. Since this is group therapy, the nurse would be illustrating the concept of universality. (A) is likely to promote defensiveness. (B and C) would support the delusion. Therefore, the most appropriate response is (D) as it provides factual information that can redirect the conversation in a constructive manner.

3. A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder tells the nurse that she wants to stop taking her lithium. She states, 'I feel fine, and I don't think I need it anymore.' What should the nurse do first?

• A. Agree with the client that she seems fine now.
• B. Remind the client of the importance of lithium.
• C. Ask the healthcare provider to discontinue the lithium prescription.
• D. Arrange for a psychiatric evaluation for the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with bipolar disorder expresses a desire to stop taking lithium because they feel fine, the nurse's initial action should be to remind the client of the importance of lithium. This approach helps educate the client about the necessity of medication adherence in managing bipolar disorder. Agreeing with the client or immediately arranging a psychiatric evaluation may not address the root issue of medication non-adherence. Asking the healthcare provider to discontinue the prescription without further assessment and intervention could potentially jeopardize the client's stability and treatment plan.

4. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with haloperidol (Haldol). The client reports feeling restless and unable to sit still. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Instruct the client to take deep breaths and relax.
• B. Assess the client for signs of akathisia.
• C. Encourage the client to engage in physical activity.
• D. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Restlessness and inability to sit still are signs of akathisia, an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic medications. The nurse should first assess the client for signs of akathisia by observing their movements and behavior. Assessing for akathisia is crucial to differentiate it from other conditions and to intervene appropriately. Instructing the client to relax or engage in physical activity may not address the underlying issue of akathisia. Administering lorazepam should not be the first action as it may mask the symptoms of akathisia temporarily without addressing the root cause.

5. A female client presents to the emergency center with confusion, emotional numbness, and expresses to the nurse a feeling of disbelief that she was raped. The nurse determines the client is in the acute phase of rape-trauma syndrome. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Secure samples of vaginal hair combings.
• B. Offer prophylactic antibiotic medication.
• C. Explain the rape protocol to the client.
• D. Implement crisis intervention counseling.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cases of rape-trauma syndrome, it is crucial to provide clear information about what to expect during the examination and treatment. This can help the client regain a sense of control and reduce anxiety. Explaining the rape protocol to the client should be the first action to implement. Option A is not the priority at this stage as the immediate focus is on addressing the client's emotional needs and providing support. Option B is not the first action unless medically indicated. Option D, crisis intervention counseling, is important but should come after providing essential information and support to the client.

Similar Questions