HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Exam
1. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) spends hours each day washing their hands. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate initially?
- A. Allow the client to continue the behavior to reduce anxiety.
- B. Set strict limits on the time allowed for handwashing.
- C. Distract the client with other activities.
- D. Encourage the client to participate in a support group.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Initially, it is most appropriate to allow the client to continue the behavior to reduce anxiety (A). For clients with OCD, abruptly stopping compulsive behaviors can lead to increased anxiety and distress. Setting strict limits (B) may exacerbate anxiety at first. Distraction with other activities (C) may not address the underlying issue effectively. While support groups (D) can be beneficial, they are typically introduced after establishing trust and gradually working on reducing compulsive behaviors.
2. What assessment is the priority focus for a client with major depression?
- A. Mood and affect.
- B. Suicidal ideation.
- C. Nutritional status.
- D. Fluid and electrolyte balance.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Suicidal ideation. When dealing with a client diagnosed with major depression, assessing for suicidal ideation is of utmost importance. Individuals with major depression have an increased risk of suicide; hence, evaluating their risk for self-harm is crucial. Mood and affect, while important, come secondary to ensuring the safety of the client. Nutritional status and fluid and electrolyte balance are essential components of care but are not the priority when dealing with a client with major depression.
3. What is the priority intervention for a client with major depressive disorder admitted to the psychiatric unit with suicidal ideation?
- A. Conduct a thorough suicide risk assessment.
- B. Encourage the client to verbalize their feelings.
- C. Provide the client with positive affirmations.
- D. Refer the client to group therapy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to conduct a thorough suicide risk assessment. When a client with major depressive disorder presents with suicidal ideation, the priority is to assess the level of risk to ensure the client's safety. This assessment helps determine the appropriate interventions, level of care, and monitoring needed. Encouraging the client to verbalize their feelings (choice B) is important, but not the priority when immediate safety is a concern. Providing positive affirmations (choice C) and referring the client to group therapy (choice D) may be beneficial interventions later on but do not address the immediate risk of harm to the client.
4. A female client with depression attends a group and states that she sometimes misses her medication appointments because she feels very anxious about riding the bus. Which statement is the nurse's best response?
- A. Can your case manager take you to your appointments?
- B. Take your medication for anxiety before you ride the bus.
- C. Let's talk about what happens when you feel very anxious.
- D. What are some ways that you can cope with your anxiety?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Encouraging the client to discuss coping mechanisms for anxiety is a supportive approach that empowers the client to manage their symptoms. Choice A may not address the client's self-management and coping skills. Choice B suggests using anxiety medication before riding the bus, which may not be the most appropriate solution. Choice C acknowledges the anxiety but does not actively involve the client in finding solutions, unlike Choice D which promotes client empowerment and self-efficacy.
5. In the described scenario, a manic client threatens a nurse with physical violence after being told they cannot have a stripper perform. What is the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN to take?
- A. Orient the client to time, person, and place
- B. Tell the client that the behavior is inappropriate
- C. Escort the manic client to her room, with assistance
- D. Tell the client that smoking privileges are revoked for 24 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this situation, where the manic client becomes verbally abusive and threatens physical violence, the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN is to escort the client to her room with assistance. This action helps ensure the safety of both the client and the nurse, while also providing a controlled environment that can help de-escalate the situation. Choices A and B do not address the immediate safety concerns presented by the client's behavior. Choice D, revoking smoking privileges, is not directly related to the client's current behavior and does not address the threat of violence.
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