Nursing Elites

1. A 52-year-old male client in the intensive care unit who has been oriented suddenly becomes disoriented and fearful. Assessment of vital signs and other physical parameters reveal no significant change, and the nurse formulates the diagnosis, 'Confusion related to ICU psychosis.' Which intervention would be best to implement?

• A. Move all machines away from the client's immediate area.
• B. Attempt to allay the client's fears by explaining the etiology of his condition.
• C. Cluster care so that brief periods of rest can be scheduled during the day.
• D. Extend visitation times for family and friends.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In critical care environments, stressors can lead to isolation and confusion. Providing the client with scheduled rest periods (C) can help alleviate these symptoms. Moving all machines away (A) is impractical as they are often essential. Explaining the condition (B) may not be effective during acute confusion. Extending visitation times (D) can be overwhelming for the client in the ICU.

2. Which statement about contemporary mental health nursing practice is accurate?

• A. There is one approved theoretical framework for psychiatric nursing practice.
• B. Psychiatric nursing has yet to be recognized as a core mental health discipline.
• C. Contemporary practice of psychiatric nursing is primarily focused on inpatient care.
• D. The psychiatric nursing client may be an individual, family, group, organization, or community.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The accurate statement about contemporary mental health nursing practice is that the psychiatric nursing client may be an individual, family, group, organization, or community. Mental health nursing extends beyond individual care to address the impact of psychiatric stressors on families, groups, and entire communities. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect: A is false as there are various theoretical frameworks used in psychiatric nursing, B is inaccurate as psychiatric nursing is a core discipline in mental health, and C is wrong as contemporary psychiatric nursing involves various settings beyond just inpatient care.

3. A client who has been diagnosed with borderline personality disorder is exhibiting manipulative behavior. What is the most important intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement?

• A. Set clear, consistent limits on manipulative behavior.
• B. Ignore the manipulative behavior to avoid reinforcing it.
• C. Remind the client that manipulative behavior is unacceptable.
• D. Explain the consequences of manipulative behavior to the client.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Setting clear, consistent limits on manipulative behavior is the most important intervention for a client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder. This approach helps establish boundaries, maintain a therapeutic environment, and provide structure for the client. Choice B is incorrect because ignoring manipulative behavior can lead to its reinforcement. Choice C, while important, may not be as effective as directly setting limits. Choice D focuses on consequences rather than immediate intervention, making it less effective than setting clear limits.

4. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for recurrent negative symptoms of chronic schizophrenia and medication adjustment of risperidone (Risperdal). When the client walks to the nurse's station in a laterally contracted position, he states that something has made his body contort into a monster. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Medicate the client with the prescribed antipsychotic thioridazine (Mellaril).
• B. Offer the client a prescribed physical therapy hot pack for muscle spasms.
• C. Direct the client to occupational therapy to distract him from somatic complaints.
• D. Administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia. Dystonia can be a side effect of antipsychotic medications like risperidone, leading to involuntary muscle contractions and abnormal postures. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to treat dystonia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because thioridazine is not the appropriate medication in this case, a hot pack would not address the underlying issue of dystonia, and occupational therapy is not the primary intervention for addressing acute dystonic reactions.

5. The RN is providing care for a client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder who has self-inflicted lacerations on the abdomen. Which approach should the RN use when changing this client's dressing?

• A. Provide detailed explanations during wound cleansing.
• B. Perform the dressing change in a non-judgmental manner.
• C. Ask the client non-threateningly why they cut their abdomen.
• D. Request assistance from another staff member for the dressing change.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing the dressing change in a non-judgmental manner is crucial when caring for a client with borderline personality disorder who has self-inflicted injuries. This approach helps build trust, reduces feelings of shame or guilt, and fosters a therapeutic relationship. Choice A is incorrect because while detailed explanations may be necessary, the focus should be on the non-judgmental approach. Choice C is inappropriate as it may come across as accusatory or threatening, potentially worsening the client's emotional state. Choice D is not the best option as the RN should strive to handle the situation themselves in a supportive and empathetic manner.

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