Nursing Elites

1. When planning care for a client with anorexia nervosa, which goal should be prioritized?

• A. The client will establish normal eating patterns.
• B. The client will verbalize feelings about food and weight.
• C. The client will gain a minimum of 2 pounds per week.
• D. The client will achieve normal electrolyte balance.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because achieving normal electrolyte balance is critical in clients with anorexia nervosa. Electrolyte imbalances can lead to serious, life-threatening complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and organ failure. While establishing normal eating patterns (choice A) and verbalizing feelings about food and weight (choice B) are important aspects of treatment, addressing electrolyte balance takes precedence due to the immediate risks associated with imbalances. Additionally, setting a weight gain goal of 2 pounds per week (choice C) may not be appropriate initially as rapid refeeding can also lead to electrolyte imbalances and other complications.

2. A client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed buspirone (BuSpar). The client asks how long it will take for the medication to start working. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. You should start feeling better within a few days.
• B. It may take 2 to 4 weeks before you notice an improvement.
• C. Buspirone works immediately to reduce anxiety symptoms.
• D. You will need to take this medication for at least a year.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Buspirone typically takes 2 to 4 weeks to become fully effective. It is essential to inform the client that it may take some time before they notice an improvement. Choice A is incorrect because buspirone does not work immediately. Choice C is also incorrect as buspirone does not provide immediate relief. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests a longer duration of treatment than necessary.

3. A female client with anorexia nervosa is admitted to the hospital. What is the priority assessment for the nurse to perform?

• A. Assess the client's body image perception.
• B. Monitor the client's electrolyte levels.
• C. Evaluate the client's exercise habits.
• D. Assess the client's relationship with her family.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's electrolyte levels. In clients with anorexia nervosa, electrolyte imbalances can lead to serious, potentially life-threatening complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Assessing body image perception (choice A) is important but not the priority when compared to monitoring electrolyte levels. Evaluating exercise habits (choice C) and assessing the client's relationship with her family (choice D) are also important aspects of care but do not take precedence over monitoring electrolyte levels in a client with anorexia nervosa.

4. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with risperidone (Risperdal). The nurse notices that the client has a shuffling gait and tremors. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a PRN dose of an anticholinergic medication.
• B. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client.
• C. Assess the client's blood glucose level.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A shuffling gait and tremors may indicate extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) from risperidone. The nurse's priority action should be to administer an anticholinergic medication as it can help alleviate these symptoms associated with EPS. Documenting the findings and monitoring the client (Choice B) are important but addressing the immediate symptoms takes precedence. Assessing the client's blood glucose level (Choice C) is not directly related to the observed symptoms of shuffling gait and tremors. While notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important, it is not the priority action when dealing with EPS symptoms.

5. In the described scenario, a manic client threatens a nurse with physical violence after being told they cannot have a stripper perform. What is the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN to take?

• A. Orient the client to time, person, and place
• B. Tell the client that the behavior is inappropriate
• C. Escort the manic client to her room, with assistance
• D. Tell the client that smoking privileges are revoked for 24 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this situation, where the manic client becomes verbally abusive and threatens physical violence, the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN is to escort the client to her room with assistance. This action helps ensure the safety of both the client and the nurse, while also providing a controlled environment that can help de-escalate the situation. Choices A and B do not address the immediate safety concerns presented by the client's behavior. Choice D, revoking smoking privileges, is not directly related to the client's current behavior and does not address the threat of violence.

Similar Questions