Nursing Elites

1. When planning care for a client with anorexia nervosa, which goal should be prioritized?

• A. The client will establish normal eating patterns.
• B. The client will verbalize feelings about food and weight.
• C. The client will gain a minimum of 2 pounds per week.
• D. The client will achieve normal electrolyte balance.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because achieving normal electrolyte balance is critical in clients with anorexia nervosa. Electrolyte imbalances can lead to serious, life-threatening complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and organ failure. While establishing normal eating patterns (choice A) and verbalizing feelings about food and weight (choice B) are important aspects of treatment, addressing electrolyte balance takes precedence due to the immediate risks associated with imbalances. Additionally, setting a weight gain goal of 2 pounds per week (choice C) may not be appropriate initially as rapid refeeding can also lead to electrolyte imbalances and other complications.

2. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with haloperidol (Haldol). The client reports feeling restless and unable to sit still. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Instruct the client to take deep breaths and relax.
• B. Assess the client for signs of akathisia.
• C. Encourage the client to engage in physical activity.
• D. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Restlessness and inability to sit still are signs of akathisia, an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic medications. The nurse should first assess the client for signs of akathisia by observing their movements and behavior. Assessing for akathisia is crucial to differentiate it from other conditions and to intervene appropriately. Instructing the client to relax or engage in physical activity may not address the underlying issue of akathisia. Administering lorazepam should not be the first action as it may mask the symptoms of akathisia temporarily without addressing the root cause.

3. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with risperidone (Risperdal). The nurse notices that the client has a shuffling gait and tremors. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a PRN dose of an anticholinergic medication.
• B. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client.
• C. Assess the client's blood glucose level.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A shuffling gait and tremors may indicate extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) from risperidone. The nurse's priority action should be to administer an anticholinergic medication as it can help alleviate these symptoms associated with EPS. Documenting the findings and monitoring the client (Choice B) are important but addressing the immediate symptoms takes precedence. Assessing the client's blood glucose level (Choice C) is not directly related to the observed symptoms of shuffling gait and tremors. While notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important, it is not the priority action when dealing with EPS symptoms.

4. A woman brings her 48-year-old husband to the outpatient psychiatric unit and describes his behavior to the admitting nurse. She states that he has been sleepwalking, cannot remember who he is, and exhibits multiple personalities. The nurse knows that these behaviors are often associated with

• A. dissociative disorder.
• B. obsessive-compulsive disorder.
• C. panic disorder.
• D. post-traumatic stress disorder.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: dissociative disorder. Sleepwalking, amnesia, and multiple personalities are examples of detaching emotional conflict from one's consciousness, which is the definition of a dissociative disorder. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (B) is characterized by persistent, recurrent intrusive thoughts or urges (obsessions) and compulsions. Panic disorder (C) is characterized by acute attacks of anxiety. Post-traumatic stress disorder (D) involves re-experiencing psychologically distressing events.

5. A male client is admitted to the mental health unit because he was feeling depressed about the loss of his wife and job. The client has a history of alcohol dependency and admits that he was drinking alcohol 12 hours ago. Vital signs are: temperature, 100 F, pulse 100, and BP 142/100. The nurse plans to give the client lorazepam (Ativan) based on which priority nursing diagnosis?

• A. Risk for injury related to suicidal ideation.
• B. Risk for injury related to alcohol detoxification.
• C. Knowledge deficit related to ineffective coping.
• D. Health-seeking behaviors related to personal crisis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important nursing diagnosis is related to alcohol detoxification (B) because the client has elevated vital signs, a sign of alcohol detoxification. Giving lorazepam (Ativan) to address the elevated vital signs due to alcohol withdrawal is a priority. Addressing the risk for injury related to suicidal ideation (A) should come after stabilizing the client's physiological state. Both (C) and (D) can be addressed once immediate safety needs are met, but the priority is managing the alcohol detoxification to prevent potential complications.

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