Nursing Elites

1. When planning care for a client with anorexia nervosa, which goal should be prioritized?

• A. The client will establish normal eating patterns.
• B. The client will verbalize feelings about food and weight.
• C. The client will gain a minimum of 2 pounds per week.
• D. The client will achieve normal electrolyte balance.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because achieving normal electrolyte balance is critical in clients with anorexia nervosa. Electrolyte imbalances can lead to serious, life-threatening complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and organ failure. While establishing normal eating patterns (choice A) and verbalizing feelings about food and weight (choice B) are important aspects of treatment, addressing electrolyte balance takes precedence due to the immediate risks associated with imbalances. Additionally, setting a weight gain goal of 2 pounds per week (choice C) may not be appropriate initially as rapid refeeding can also lead to electrolyte imbalances and other complications.

2. A 30-year-old sales manager tells the nurse, 'I am thinking about a job change. I don't feel like I am living up to my potential.' Which of Maslow's developmental stages is the sales manager attempting to achieve?

• A. Self-Actualization
• B. Loving and Belonging
• C. Basic Needs
• D. Safety and Security

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Self-Actualization.' Self-actualization is the highest level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs, focusing on fulfilling one's full potential and achieving personal growth. In this scenario, the sales manager expressing a desire for a job change because they don't feel they are living up to their potential aligns with the characteristics of self-actualization. Choices B, C, and D represent lower levels of Maslow's hierarchy: 'Loving and Belonging' pertains to social needs, 'Basic Needs' encompass physiological and safety needs, and 'Safety and Security' are fundamental needs related to protection and stability.

3. The nurse is preparing to administer phenelzine sulfate (Nardil) to a client on the psychiatric unit. Which complaint related to administration of this drug should the nurse expect this client to make?

• A. My mouth feels like cotton.
• B. That medication gives me indigestion.
• C. This pill gives me diarrhea.
• D. My urine looks pink.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dry mouth is a common side effect of MAO inhibitors like phenelzine due to their anticholinergic effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as indigestion, diarrhea, and pink urine are not commonly associated side effects of phenelzine.

4. What is the most important goal of care for a client diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) who has been taking the benzodiazepine alprazolam (Xanax) long-term? The client will:

• A. Describe a decrease in anxiety using a 1 to 10 anxiety scale.
• B. State the importance of not abruptly stopping the medication.
• C. Not experience dizziness, lightheadedness, or sedation.
• D. Attend scheduled individual and group therapy sessions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The most important goal of care for a client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) taking alprazolam long-term is to ensure they understand the importance of not abruptly stopping the medication. Abruptly stopping benzodiazepines can lead to withdrawal symptoms and potential complications. Choice A is not the most critical goal as the focus should be on the safe continuation of the medication. Choice C is important but not as crucial as preventing abrupt discontinuation. Choice D is beneficial for overall treatment but not the most important goal in this scenario.

5. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with haloperidol (Haldol). The LPN/LVN observes the client pacing in the hallway and appearing anxious. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Ask the client to sit down and relax.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of antipsychotic medication.
• C. Encourage the client to talk about what is making him anxious.
• D. Monitor the client for adverse reactions to the medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of antipsychotic medication is the first action the nurse should take to manage symptoms of anxiety in a client being treated with haloperidol. The priority is to address the client's escalating anxiety and pacing behavior, which can be managed effectively by providing additional antipsychotic medication. Asking the client to sit down and relax (Choice A) may not be effective if the anxiety is due to inadequate medication levels. Encouraging the client to talk about what is making him anxious (Choice C) may not be beneficial in this acute situation and can be considered after addressing the immediate need for symptom management. Monitoring for adverse reactions (Choice D) is important but is not the first action to take when the client is showing signs of increasing anxiety and agitation.

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