Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing severe anxiety. Which intervention is most appropriate for the nurse to implement?

• A. Instruct the client to take deep breaths and focus on the present.
• B. Encourage the client to discuss their fears in detail.
• C. Distract the client with a humorous story or anecdote.
• D. Leave the client alone to process their emotions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client experiencing severe anxiety is to instruct the client to take deep breaths and focus on the present. Deep breathing can help reduce the physiological symptoms of anxiety and provide the client with a way to regain control over their emotions. Choice B is incorrect as discussing fears in detail may escalate anxiety levels. Choice C is inappropriate as distracting the client may not address the root cause of anxiety. Choice D is not recommended as leaving the client alone can increase feelings of isolation and distress.

2. The parents of a nuclear family attending a support group for parents of adolescents are being assessed by the nurse. According to Erikson, these parents who are adapting to middle adulthood should exhibit which characteristic?

• A. Loss of independence.
• B. Increased self-understanding.
• C. Isolation from society.
• D. Development of intimate relationships.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased self-understanding. According to Erikson's psychosocial development theory, middle adulthood is characterized by generativity, self-reflection, understanding, and acceptance. Middle-aged adults focus on guiding the next generation and finding meaning in their lives. Choices A and C are incorrect because loss of independence and isolation from society are maladaptive behaviors in middle adulthood. While developing and maintaining intimate relationships is important throughout life, the initial development of intimate relationships typically occurs during young adulthood, not middle adulthood.

3. A nurse is assessing a client with dementia who is showing signs of increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon. What is the most likely explanation for the client's symptoms?

• A. Anxiety
• B. Depression
• C. Sun-downing syndrome
• D. Medication side effects

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sun-downing syndrome. Sun-downing syndrome is a phenomenon commonly seen in individuals with dementia, where they exhibit increased confusion and agitation in the late afternoon or evening. This pattern of behavior is believed to be linked to disruptions in the circadian rhythm and can be triggered by factors such as fatigue, low lighting, or increased shadows during the evening. Choices A and B, anxiety and depression, may be comorbid conditions in individuals with dementia but are not the primary explanation for the symptoms described. While medication side effects (Choice D) should always be considered in a client with dementia, given the time-specific nature of the symptoms, sun-downing syndrome is the most likely explanation in this case.

4. When caring for a client who has overdosed on PCP, the nurse should be especially cautious about which of the following client behaviors?

• A. Visual hallucinations
• B. Violent behavior
• C. Bizarre behavior
• D. Loud screaming

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Violent behavior.' When a client has overdosed on PCP, the nurse should be particularly cautious about the manifestation of violent behavior. PCP overdose can lead to aggressive and unpredictable actions, posing a significant risk to both the client and healthcare providers. Visual hallucinations (choice A), bizarre behavior (choice C), and loud screaming (choice D) can also occur with PCP overdose, but the primary concern should be the potential for violent behavior, making it the most critical behavior to monitor and manage.

5. The nurse plans to help an 18-year-old female intellectually disabled client ambulate on the first postoperative day after an appendectomy. When the nurse tells the client it is time to get out of bed, the client becomes angry and tells the nurse, 'Get out of here! I'll get up when I'm ready!' Which response is best for the nurse to make?

• A. Your healthcare provider has prescribed ambulation on the first postoperative day.
• B. You must ambulate to avoid complications that could cause more discomfort than ambulating.
• C. I know how you feel. You're angry about having to ambulate, but this will help you get well.
• D. I'll be back in 30 minutes to help you get out of bed and walk around the room.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: (D) provides a 'cooling off' period, is firm, direct, non-threatening, and avoids arguing with the client. (A) is avoiding responsibility by referring to the healthcare provider. (B) is trying to reason with an intellectually disabled client and is threatening the client with 'complications.' (C) is telling the client how she feels (angry), and the nurse does not really 'know' how this client feels, unless the nurse is also intellectually disabled and has also just had an appendectomy.

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