HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Questions
1. When caring for a client who has overdosed on PCP, the nurse should be especially cautious about which of the following client behaviors?
- A. Visual hallucinations
- B. Violent behavior
- C. Bizarre behavior
- D. Loud screaming
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Violent behavior.' When a client has overdosed on PCP, the nurse should be particularly cautious about the manifestation of violent behavior. PCP overdose can lead to aggressive and unpredictable actions, posing a significant risk to both the client and healthcare providers. Visual hallucinations (choice A), bizarre behavior (choice C), and loud screaming (choice D) can also occur with PCP overdose, but the primary concern should be the potential for violent behavior, making it the most critical behavior to monitor and manage.
2. A male client with alcohol dependence is admitted for detoxification. The nurse knows that which assessment finding is indicative of alcohol withdrawal?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hypotension
- C. Tremors
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Tremors are a common sign of alcohol withdrawal. The central nervous system becomes hyperexcitable due to the suppression caused by chronic alcohol intake. Tremors are a manifestation of this hyperexcitability and are a key indicator of alcohol withdrawal. Bradycardia and hypotension are more commonly associated with conditions like shock or severe dehydration rather than alcohol withdrawal. Hyperglycemia is not a typical finding in alcohol withdrawal; instead, hypoglycemia is more commonly seen due to the effects of alcohol on glucose metabolism.
3. A male client with delirium becomes disoriented and confused in his room at night. The best initial nursing intervention is to:
- A. Move the client next to the nurse's station
- B. Use an indirect light source and turn off the television
- C. Keep the television and a soft light on during the night
- D. Play soft music during the night, and maintain a well-lit room
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best initial nursing intervention for a male client with delirium who becomes disoriented and confused in his room at night is to use an indirect light source and turn off the television. This approach helps to reduce stimulation and confusion, aiding in the client's orientation and comfort. Moving the client next to the nurse's station (Choice A) may not address the root cause of disorientation and could disrupt the client's routine. Keeping the television and a soft light on (Choice C) may further contribute to the client's confusion. Playing soft music and maintaining a well-lit room (Choice D) may not be as effective in reducing stimulation and promoting orientation as using an indirect light source and turning off the television.
4. An adolescent with major depressive disorder has been taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) for the past 12 days. Which assessment finding requires immediate follow-up?
- A. Describes life as without purpose.
- B. Exhibits an increase in sweating.
- C. States is often fatigued and drowsy.
- D. Complains of nausea and loss of appetite.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Expressing that life is without purpose can indicate deepening depression or suicidal ideation, which requires immediate attention. While sweating, fatigue, drowsiness, nausea, and loss of appetite can be side effects of duloxetine (Cymbalta), they do not indicate the same level of urgency as a statement suggesting deepening depression or suicidal ideation.
5. The wife of a male client recently diagnosed with schizophrenia asks the nurse, 'What exactly is schizophrenia? Is my husband all right?' Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide to this family member?
- A. It sounds like you're worried about your husband. Let's sit down and talk.
- B. It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.
- C. Your husband will be just fine if he takes his medications regularly.
- D. I think you should talk to your husband's psychologist about this question.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best response for the LPN/LVN to provide to the wife of a male client diagnosed with schizophrenia is choice B: 'It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.' This response educates the wife about the nature of schizophrenia, explaining that it is caused by a chemical imbalance in the brain leading to disorganized thinking, helping her understand the condition better. Choice A does not directly address the question and instead shifts the focus to a different aspect. Choice C gives false reassurance without providing necessary information about schizophrenia. Choice D deflects the responsibility of providing information to the psychologist instead of addressing the wife's concerns directly.
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