Nursing Elites

1. A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action will the nurse initiate?

• A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor closely.
• B. Immediately transfer the client to the ICU.
• C. Report the symptoms to the charge nurse and document in the client's chart.
• D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of such medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a severe and life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs. The major symptoms include fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and encephalopathy. Respiratory failure, cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, and/or renal failure can lead to death. This is an emergency situation requiring immediate critical care, thus the correct action is to transfer the client to the ICU (B). Seizure precautions (A) are not relevant in this scenario. Merely describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them (C) or taking no action assuming these are common side effects (D) fail to address the critical nature of the situation and the urgency of immediate intervention.

2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with major depressive disorder who is prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). What is the most important teaching point for the nurse to include?

• A. You may experience dizziness, so avoid driving.
• B. It may take several weeks to feel the full effect of the medication.
• C. Avoid foods high in tyramine while taking this medication.
• D. Take this medication only when you feel depressed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because SSRIs like fluoxetine typically take several weeks to reach their full therapeutic effect, so it's important to set realistic expectations for the client. Choice A is incorrect as dizziness is a common side effect but not the most important teaching point. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding tyramine-rich foods is more relevant for MAOIs. Choice D is incorrect as fluoxetine should be taken consistently, not only when the client feels depressed, to maintain therapeutic blood levels.

3. A client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder is pacing the hallway and talking rapidly. What is the best intervention for the nurse?

• A. Encourage the client to join a group activity.
• B. Offer the client a high-calorie snack and a drink.
• C. Direct the client to a quieter area of the unit.
• D. Instruct the client to sit down and relax.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the manic phase of bipolar disorder, clients often exhibit increased activity and may burn a lot of energy. Offering a high-calorie snack and a drink is the best intervention as it helps maintain their nutritional needs while allowing them to continue their activity. Encouraging the client to join a group activity (Choice A) may further stimulate their behavior. Directing the client to a quieter area (Choice C) might not address their energy expenditure. Instructing the client to sit down and relax (Choice D) may not be effective during the manic phase.

4. Select the nursing interventions for a hospitalized client with mania who is exhibiting manipulative behavior. Select one intervention that does not apply.

• A. Communicate expected behaviors to the client
• B. Ensure that the client knows that he or she is not in charge of the nursing unit
• C. Assist the client in identifying ways of setting limits on personal behaviors
• D. Follow through about the consequences of behavior in a non-punitive manner

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ensuring that the client knows they are not in charge of the nursing unit is not a helpful nursing intervention for managing manipulative behavior in a client with mania. Communicating expected behaviors, assisting with limit-setting, and following through on consequences in a non-punitive manner are more appropriate interventions to address manipulative behavior.

5. A 27-year-old female client is admitted to the psychiatric hospital with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder, manic phase. She is demanding and active. Which intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?

• A. Schedule noncompetitive activities that can be carried out alone.
• B. Monitor her decision-making process.
• C. Encourage her to identify feelings of anger.
• D. Provide a structured environment with little stimuli.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients in the manic phase of bipolar disorder require a structured environment with decreased stimuli to help manage their symptoms. Providing a structured environment with little stimuli (D) can help reduce the risk of escalating behaviors. Scheduling noncompetitive activities that can be carried out alone (A) is more appropriate than group activities as excessive stimuli should be avoided. Monitoring decision-making processes (B) is important due to impulsivity in manic phases. Encouraging the client to identify feelings of anger (C) is not the priority in managing manic symptoms, as it is more often associated with depression than bipolar disorder.

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