HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health
1. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) spends several hours a day washing his hands. What is the best nursing intervention?
- A. Restrict the client's access to soap and water.
- B. Encourage the client to discuss their compulsions.
- C. Allow the client to continue the behavior until ready to stop.
- D. Schedule activities that distract the client from hand-washing.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging the client to discuss their compulsions is the best nursing intervention when caring for a client with OCD who spends excessive time on hand-washing. This approach can help the client identify underlying anxieties and triggers associated with the compulsive behavior. Restricting access to soap and water (Choice A) can lead to increased anxiety and worsen the obsession. Allowing the client to continue the behavior (Choice C) can perpetuate the compulsive cycle. Scheduling distracting activities (Choice D) may provide temporary relief but does not address the root cause of the behavior.
2. A male client with bipolar disorder has not slept or eaten in four days. He paces and becomes increasingly agitated and loud while the nurse talks to his spouse. What intervention is the best for the nurse to implement at this time?
- A. Move to a quiet area and provide peanut butter with crackers.
- B. Walk with the client to the cafeteria and star as he eats lunch.
- C. Request a full lunch tray from the dietary department.
- D. Encourage the spouse to eat lunch with the client.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, the best intervention for the nurse to implement is to move the client to a quiet area and provide peanut butter with crackers. The client's behavior indicates increasing agitation and loudness, which could be exacerbated by a noisy environment. Providing a quiet space can help reduce stimuli and promote a sense of calm. Additionally, offering a small, manageable snack like peanut butter with crackers can address the client's immediate needs for sustenance without overwhelming him. Choices B, C, and D do not address the client's current agitation and lack of sleep or food effectively, making them less appropriate interventions in this scenario.
3. The nurse should hold the next scheduled dose of a client's haloperidol (Haldol) based on which assessment finding(s)?
- A. Dizziness when standing.
- B. Shuffling gait and hand tremors.
- C. Urinary retention.
- D. Fever of 102°F.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A fever (D) may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially fatal complication of antipsychotics. The healthcare provider should be contacted before administering the next dose of Haldol. Dizziness when standing (A), shuffling gait and hand tremors (B), and urinary retention (C) are all adverse effects of Haldol that, while concerning, do not pose immediate life-threatening risks compared to the potential severity of NMS indicated by a fever.
4. A teenaged male client is admitted to the postoperative unit following open reduction of a fractured femur which occurred when he fell down the stairs at a party. The nurse notices needle marks on the client's arms and plans to observe for narcotic withdrawal. Early signs of narcotic withdrawal include which assessment findings?
- A. Vomiting, seizures, and loss of consciousness.
- B. Depression, fatigue, and dizziness.
- C. Hypotension, shallow respirations, and dilated pupils.
- D. Agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps are early signs of narcotic withdrawal. Vomiting, seizures, and loss of consciousness (Option A) are more indicative of severe withdrawal or overdose symptoms. Depression, fatigue, and dizziness (Option B) are not typically early signs of narcotic withdrawal. Hypotension, shallow respirations, and dilated pupils (Option C) are more associated with opioid overdose rather than withdrawal. Monitoring for agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps is crucial for managing narcotic withdrawal symptoms effectively.
5. An elderly client was prescribed Ativan 1 mg three times a day to help calm her anxiety after her husband's death. The next day the client calls her daughter asking when she is picking her up to go to the graveside. The client says she has been walking up and down the driveway for the past hour waiting for her daughter. Noting the client's agitation, hyperactivity, and insistence, the daughter calls the nurse to report her mother's behavior. What should the nurse suspect?
- A. The client is manic and may need a sleeping pill
- B. The client is experiencing a medication interaction and should go to the ED
- C. The client is experiencing a paradoxical reaction to the Ativan and should stop the new medication immediately
- D. The client is overcome by grief and probably needs an antidepressant
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A paradoxical reaction to Ativan, where the drug causes opposite effects such as increased agitation and hyperactivity, should prompt immediate cessation of the medication. In this scenario, the client was prescribed Ativan to help calm her anxiety, but instead, she is displaying symptoms of increased agitation and hyperactivity, indicating a paradoxical reaction. Choice A is incorrect because the symptoms described do not align with mania. Choice B is incorrect as there is no mention of a medication interaction. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of a paradoxical reaction rather than overwhelming grief.
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