HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Exam
1. An adolescent who attempted suicide with a drug overdose arrives in the emergency department with an empty 30-tablet bottle of acetaminophen (Tylenol). Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst).
- B. Monitor cardiac rhythm for flat T waves.
- C. Check both serum AST and ALT levels.
- D. Prepare to administer Syrup of Ipecac.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst). Acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose and should be administered promptly to prevent liver damage. Monitoring cardiac rhythm for flat T waves (Choice B) is not specific to acetaminophen overdose and is more related to cardiac conditions. Checking serum AST and ALT levels (Choice C) may be done later but is not the initial priority in this situation. Similarly, preparing to administer Syrup of Ipecac (Choice D) is not recommended anymore in cases of overdose as it can cause more harm.
2. An elderly client was prescribed Ativan 1 mg three times a day to help calm her anxiety after her husband's death. The next day the client calls her daughter asking when she is picking her up to go to the graveside. The client says she has been walking up and down the driveway for the past hour waiting for her daughter. Noting the client's agitation, hyperactivity, and insistence, the daughter calls the nurse to report her mother's behavior. What should the nurse suspect?
- A. The client is manic and may need a sleeping pill
- B. The client is experiencing a medication interaction and should go to the ED
- C. The client is experiencing a paradoxical reaction to the Ativan and should stop the new medication immediately
- D. The client is overcome by grief and probably needs an antidepressant
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A paradoxical reaction to Ativan, where the drug causes opposite effects such as increased agitation and hyperactivity, should prompt immediate cessation of the medication. In this scenario, the client was prescribed Ativan to help calm her anxiety, but instead, she is displaying symptoms of increased agitation and hyperactivity, indicating a paradoxical reaction. Choice A is incorrect because the symptoms described do not align with mania. Choice B is incorrect as there is no mention of a medication interaction. Choice D is incorrect as the symptoms are more indicative of a paradoxical reaction rather than overwhelming grief.
3. An adult male client who was admitted to the mental health unit yesterday tells the nurse that microchips were planted in his head for military surveillance of his every move. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. You are in the hospital, and I am the nurse caring for you
- B. It must be difficult for you to control your anxious feelings
- C. Go to occupational therapy and start a project
- D. You are not in a war area now; this is the United States
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Delusions often generate fear and isolation, so the nurse should help the client participate in activities that avoid focusing on the false belief and encourage interaction with others.
4. The client is planning discharge for a male client with schizophrenia. The client insists that he is returning to his apartment, although the healthcare provider informed him that he will be moving to a boarding home. What is the most important nursing diagnosis for discharge planning?
- A. Ineffective denial related to situational anxiety.
- B. Ineffective coping related to inadequate support.
- C. Social isolation related to difficult interactions.
- D. Self-care deficit related to cognitive impairment.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best nursing diagnosis is (A) because the client is unable to acknowledge the move to a boarding home. While (B, C, and D) are potential nursing diagnoses, denial is the most critical as it is a defense mechanism preventing the client from addressing his feelings regarding the change in living arrangements.
5. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations that command him to harm himself. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Ensure the client is not left alone.
- B. Document the content of the hallucinations.
- C. Administer PRN antipsychotic medication.
- D. Encourage the client to ignore the voices.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the client is not left alone. When a client with schizophrenia is having auditory hallucinations that command self-harm, the priority is to ensure the client's safety. Leaving the client alone may increase the risk of self-harm. Documenting the content of the hallucinations (choice B) is important but not the priority when immediate safety is a concern. Administering PRN antipsychotic medication (choice C) may be necessary but is not the priority over ensuring the client's immediate safety. Encouraging the client to ignore the voices (choice D) is not as effective as ensuring the client's safety by being present and providing support.
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