Nursing Elites

1. An adolescent who attempted suicide with a drug overdose arrives in the emergency department with an empty 30-tablet bottle of acetaminophen (Tylenol). Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst).
• B. Monitor cardiac rhythm for flat T waves.
• C. Check both serum AST and ALT levels.
• D. Prepare to administer Syrup of Ipecac.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst). Acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose and should be administered promptly to prevent liver damage. Monitoring cardiac rhythm for flat T waves (Choice B) is not specific to acetaminophen overdose and is more related to cardiac conditions. Checking serum AST and ALT levels (Choice C) may be done later but is not the initial priority in this situation. Similarly, preparing to administer Syrup of Ipecac (Choice D) is not recommended anymore in cases of overdose as it can cause more harm.

2. A client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed alprazolam (Xanax). What is the most important teaching point for the nurse to include?

• A. Take this medication at the first sign of anxiety.
• B. Do not stop taking this medication abruptly.
• C. You may experience weight gain while taking this medication.
• D. This medication may cause vivid dreams.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important teaching point for a client prescribed alprazolam is not to stop taking the medication abruptly. Abruptly stopping alprazolam, a benzodiazepine, can lead to withdrawal symptoms. It is crucial to taper off the medication under medical supervision to prevent adverse effects. Choice A is incorrect because taking the medication at the first sign of anxiety is not the key teaching point. Choice C is incorrect because weight gain is not a common side effect of alprazolam. Choice D is incorrect because vivid dreams are not a significant concern compared to the risks of abrupt discontinuation of the medication.

3. A client with bipolar disorder is being treated with lithium. The nurse should monitor the client for which early sign of lithium toxicity?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Tremors
• C. Polyuria
• D. Blurred vision

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Diarrhea is an early sign of lithium toxicity. When a client being treated with lithium presents with diarrhea, it can indicate the beginning of lithium toxicity. Monitoring for this symptom is crucial as it can progress to more severe toxicity if not addressed promptly. Tremors (choice B) are more commonly associated with the therapeutic effects of lithium rather than toxicity. Polyuria (choice C) is a common side effect of lithium, but it is not typically an early sign of toxicity. Blurred vision (choice D) is not a common early sign of lithium toxicity. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

4. A young adult male client, diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia, believes that the world is trying to poison him. What intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?

• A. Remind the client that his suspicions are not true
• B. Ask one nurse to spend time with the client daily
• C. Encourage the client to participate in group activities
• D. Assign the client to a room closest to the activity room

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia who believes in paranoid delusions is to ask one nurse to spend time with the client daily. Establishing a trusting relationship with a consistent caregiver can help reduce anxiety and foster a sense of security. Choice A is incorrect because directly challenging the client's beliefs may increase distress. Choice C might overwhelm the client with paranoia in a group setting. Choice D does not address the need for a trusting relationship with a specific caregiver.

5. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is hospitalized for treatment. Which intervention is most important for the LPN/LVN to include in the client's plan of care?

• A. Allow the client to engage in compulsive behaviors as a way to reduce anxiety.
• B. Encourage the client to ignore the compulsive behaviors.
• C. Help the client to understand the purpose of compulsive behaviors.
• D. Work with the client to gradually reduce the frequency of compulsive behaviors.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with OCD is to work with them to gradually reduce the frequency of compulsive behaviors. This approach helps the client manage their condition effectively without causing undue distress. Allowing the client to engage in compulsive behaviors can reinforce the disorder rather than alleviate it. Encouraging the client to ignore compulsive behaviors does not address the core issue of OCD. While helping the client understand the purpose of compulsive behaviors can be beneficial, actively working to reduce these behaviors is more crucial in the treatment of OCD.

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