Nursing Elites

1. An adolescent who attempted suicide with a drug overdose arrives in the emergency department with an empty 30-tablet bottle of acetaminophen (Tylenol). Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst).
• B. Monitor cardiac rhythm for flat T waves.
• C. Check both serum AST and ALT levels.
• D. Prepare to administer Syrup of Ipecac.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst). Acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose and should be administered promptly to prevent liver damage. Monitoring cardiac rhythm for flat T waves (Choice B) is not specific to acetaminophen overdose and is more related to cardiac conditions. Checking serum AST and ALT levels (Choice C) may be done later but is not the initial priority in this situation. Similarly, preparing to administer Syrup of Ipecac (Choice D) is not recommended anymore in cases of overdose as it can cause more harm.

2. A client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reports having frequent nightmares. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Nightmares are common with PTSD and should decrease over time.
• B. Try to avoid thinking about the trauma before going to bed.
• C. Let's discuss some relaxation techniques you can use before bedtime.
• D. I will ask the healthcare provider to prescribe a sleep aid.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to discuss relaxation techniques with the client that can help reduce anxiety and stress before bedtime. This approach may potentially decrease the frequency of nightmares by promoting a more calming and peaceful pre-sleep routine. Choice A is incorrect because while nightmares can be common with PTSD, it is not guaranteed that they will decrease over time. Choice B is incorrect as avoiding thinking about the trauma may not address the underlying issue causing the nightmares. Choice D is incorrect as prescribing a sleep aid should be considered as a last resort after trying non-pharmacological interventions.

3. A LPN/LVN is preparing to care for a dying client, and several family members are at the client's bedside. Select the therapeutic techniques that the nurse would use when communicating with the family. Select one that does not apply.

• A. Discourage reminiscing
• B. Make decisions for the family
• C. Encourage expression of feelings, concerns, and fears
• D. Explain everything that is happening to all family members

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the expression of feelings, concerns, and fears is a therapeutic technique that helps the family cope with the situation and express their emotions. This approach fosters trust and emotional release. Making decisions for the family is not appropriate because it takes away their autonomy and control during a difficult time. Discouraging reminiscing may hinder the family's coping mechanisms by discouraging them from sharing memories and finding comfort in the past. Explaining everything that is happening to all family members promotes transparency and understanding, which can help reduce anxiety and fear.

4. A female client in an acute care facility has been on antipsychotic medications for the past three days. Her psychotic behaviors have decreased and she has had no adverse reactions. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. What action should the nurse initiate?

• A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor her frequently.
• B. Take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately.
• C. Describe the symptoms to the charge nurse and document them in the client's record.
• D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of her medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to initiate is to take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately. These symptoms may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome, a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications, requiring immediate medical attention. Placing the client on seizure precautions and monitoring her frequently (Choice A) is not the most appropriate action in this situation. Describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them in the client's record (Choice C) delays prompt medical intervention. Choosing not to take any action (Choice D) is dangerous as the symptoms described suggest a serious condition that needs urgent evaluation and treatment.

5. A client with panic disorder is experiencing a panic attack. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Encourage the client to breathe slowly and deeply.
• B. Ask the client to describe the sensations they are experiencing.
• C. Encourage the client to focus on a calming image.
• D. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Encouraging slow, deep breathing is the priority intervention during a panic attack as it can help reduce the physiological symptoms and assist the client in regaining control. This technique can help decrease hyperventilation and promote relaxation. Choice B, asking the client to describe sensations, may be beneficial after the panic attack has subsided to gain insight into triggers or manifestations. Choice C, encouraging the client to focus on a calming image, can be helpful in managing anxiety but may not be as effective during the acute phase of a panic attack. Choice D, administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan), should only be considered if the client does not respond to initial non-pharmacological interventions or if the symptoms are severe and unmanageable.

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