HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Exam
1. An adolescent who attempted suicide with a drug overdose arrives in the emergency department with an empty 30-tablet bottle of acetaminophen (Tylenol). Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst).
- B. Monitor cardiac rhythm for flat T waves.
- C. Check both serum AST and ALT levels.
- D. Prepare to administer Syrup of Ipecac.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst). Acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose and should be administered promptly to prevent liver damage. Monitoring cardiac rhythm for flat T waves (Choice B) is not specific to acetaminophen overdose and is more related to cardiac conditions. Checking serum AST and ALT levels (Choice C) may be done later but is not the initial priority in this situation. Similarly, preparing to administer Syrup of Ipecac (Choice D) is not recommended anymore in cases of overdose as it can cause more harm.
2. A female client with anorexia nervosa is admitted to the hospital. What is the priority assessment for the nurse to perform?
- A. Assess the client's body image perception.
- B. Monitor the client's electrolyte levels.
- C. Evaluate the client's exercise habits.
- D. Assess the client's relationship with her family.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's electrolyte levels. In clients with anorexia nervosa, electrolyte imbalances can lead to serious, potentially life-threatening complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Assessing body image perception (choice A) is important but not the priority when compared to monitoring electrolyte levels. Evaluating exercise habits (choice C) and assessing the client's relationship with her family (choice D) are also important aspects of care but do not take precedence over monitoring electrolyte levels in a client with anorexia nervosa.
3. What is the most important nursing intervention during the first 48 hours for a client with anorexia nervosa admitted to the hospital?
- A. Providing high-calorie, high-protein meals.
- B. Monitoring vital signs and electrolytes.
- C. Encouraging the client to talk about feelings.
- D. Observing for signs of purging.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important nursing intervention during the first 48 hours for a client with anorexia nervosa is monitoring vital signs and electrolytes (B) to assess for life-threatening complications. This helps in early detection of any physiological imbalances that could lead to serious consequences. Providing high-calorie, high-protein meals (A) is important for nutritional rehabilitation but comes after ensuring the client's physical stability. Encouraging the client to talk about feelings (C) and observing for signs of purging (D) are relevant aspects of care but are not as critical as monitoring vital signs and electrolytes in the initial phase of treatment.
4. A client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reports having frequent nightmares. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. Nightmares are common with PTSD and should decrease over time.
- B. Try to avoid thinking about the trauma before going to bed.
- C. Let's discuss some relaxation techniques you can use before bedtime.
- D. I will ask the healthcare provider to prescribe a sleep aid.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The best response for the nurse is to discuss relaxation techniques with the client that can help reduce anxiety and stress before bedtime. This approach may potentially decrease the frequency of nightmares by promoting a more calming and peaceful pre-sleep routine. Choice A is incorrect because while nightmares can be common with PTSD, it is not guaranteed that they will decrease over time. Choice B is incorrect as avoiding thinking about the trauma may not address the underlying issue causing the nightmares. Choice D is incorrect as prescribing a sleep aid should be considered as a last resort after trying non-pharmacological interventions.
5. A male adolescent is admitted with bipolar disorder after being released from jail for assault with a deadly weapon. When the nurse asks the teen to identify his reason for the assault, he replies, 'Because he made me mad!' Which goal is best for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care? The client will
- A. outline methods for managing anger.
- B. control impulsive actions toward self and others.
- C. verbalize feelings when anger occurs.
- D. recognize consequences for behaviors exhibited.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the client's response indicates poor impulse control, a common issue in individuals with bipolar disorder. The most critical goal for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care is to help the client control impulsive actions toward self and others. This goal is essential for preventing harmful behaviors and mitigating the social consequences associated with impulsivity. While outlining methods for managing anger, verbalizing feelings when anger occurs, and recognizing consequences for behaviors exhibited are important aspects of therapy, they do not directly address the urgent need to control impulsive behavior in this case.
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