HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Exam
1. An adolescent who attempted suicide with a drug overdose arrives in the emergency department with an empty 30-tablet bottle of acetaminophen (Tylenol). Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst).
- B. Monitor cardiac rhythm for flat T waves.
- C. Check both serum AST and ALT levels.
- D. Prepare to administer Syrup of Ipecac.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst). Acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose and should be administered promptly to prevent liver damage. Monitoring cardiac rhythm for flat T waves (Choice B) is not specific to acetaminophen overdose and is more related to cardiac conditions. Checking serum AST and ALT levels (Choice C) may be done later but is not the initial priority in this situation. Similarly, preparing to administer Syrup of Ipecac (Choice D) is not recommended anymore in cases of overdose as it can cause more harm.
2. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with risperidone (Risperdal). The nurse notices that the client has a shuffling gait and tremors. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer a PRN dose of an anticholinergic medication.
- B. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client.
- C. Assess the client's blood glucose level.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A shuffling gait and tremors may indicate extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) from risperidone. The nurse's priority action should be to administer an anticholinergic medication as it can help alleviate these symptoms associated with EPS. Documenting the findings and monitoring the client (Choice B) are important but addressing the immediate symptoms takes precedence. Assessing the client's blood glucose level (Choice C) is not directly related to the observed symptoms of shuffling gait and tremors. While notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important, it is not the priority action when dealing with EPS symptoms.
3. A client who is diagnosed with schizophrenia is admitted to the hospital. The nurse assesses the client's mental status. Which assessment finding is most characteristic of a client with schizophrenia?
- A. Mood swings.
- B. Extreme sadness.
- C. Manipulative behavior.
- D. Flat affect.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Flat affect. Flat affect, which is a lack of emotional expression, is highly characteristic of schizophrenia. Mood swings (choice A) are more indicative of mood disorders rather than schizophrenia. Extreme sadness (choice B) could be seen in depression but is not as specific to schizophrenia. Manipulative behavior (choice C) is not a defining characteristic of schizophrenia; it may be seen in various psychiatric conditions but is not the most characteristic feature of schizophrenia.
4. A newly admitted client describes her mission in life as one of saving her son by eliminating the 'provocative sluts' of the world. There are several attractive young women on the unit. What should the LPN/LVN do first?
- A. Ask the client for her definition of 'provocative sluts'
- B. Ask the young female clients on the unit to dress less provocatively
- C. Ask the client to discuss her concerns in the next group session
- D. Ask the client to inform the staff if she has negative thoughts about other clients
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the LPN/LVN to take first is to ask the client to inform the staff if she has negative thoughts about other clients. This approach is crucial as it helps in monitoring the client's thoughts and behaviors, potentially preventing any harmful actions towards others on the unit. Asking for the client's definition of 'provocative sluts' (Choice A) may not address the immediate concern of monitoring the client's harmful thoughts. Asking the young female clients to dress less provocatively (Choice B) is inappropriate and victim-blaming. Asking the client to discuss her concerns in the next group session (Choice C) may not be effective in addressing the potential harm the client's thoughts could pose to others on the unit.
5. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
- A. Ask the client to describe the voices and what they are saying.
- B. Tell the client that the voices are not real.
- C. Encourage the client to engage in reality-based activities.
- D. Ask the client to focus on positive thoughts instead of the voices.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with schizophrenia experiencing auditory hallucinations is to encourage them to engage in reality-based activities. This intervention helps manage auditory hallucinations by redirecting the client's focus away from the hallucinations. Choice A is not recommended as it may exacerbate the hallucinations or distress the client. Choice B is incorrect because denying the reality of the voices can invalidate the client's experiences. Choice D, asking the client to focus on positive thoughts, may not be effective in addressing the auditory hallucinations directly.
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