HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Exam
1. A 35-year-old male client on the psychiatric unit of a general hospital believes that someone is trying to poison him. The nurse understands that a client's delusions are most likely related to his
- A. early childhood experiences involving authority issues.
- B. anger about being hospitalized.
- C. low self-esteem.
- D. phobic fear of food.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Psychotic clients often experience delusions due to difficulties with trust and low self-esteem (C). In this case, the client's belief that someone is trying to poison him is likely a manifestation of his underlying issues with trust and self-worth. Building trust and promoting positive self-esteem are essential in caring for such clients. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because delusions are not primarily related to early childhood experiences involving authority issues, anger about hospitalization, or phobic fear of food. These factors do not directly contribute to the development of delusions in psychotic clients.
2. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who has been prescribed lithium carbonate. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide?
- A. Take the medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
- B. Do not change your salt intake while on this medication.
- C. Drink plenty of water and maintain a consistent salt intake.
- D. Avoid excessive intake of caffeine while on this medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important instruction for a client prescribed lithium carbonate is not to change their salt intake. Alterations in sodium levels can impact lithium levels, leading to an increased risk of toxicity. Choice A is not crucial for lithium carbonate administration. While hydration is essential, maintaining a consistent salt intake is more critical than just increasing water intake (Choice C). Although caffeine can interact with lithium, it is not as important as maintaining a consistent salt intake (Choice D).
3. When caring for a client with borderline personality disorder in a psychiatric unit, what is the most therapeutic nursing intervention?
- A. Set clear and consistent boundaries for the client.
- B. Allow the client to vent their feelings without interruption.
- C. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy.
- D. Provide the client with frequent reassurance and support.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Setting clear and consistent boundaries is the most therapeutic nursing intervention when caring for a client with borderline personality disorder. This approach provides structure, promotes predictability, and helps prevent manipulative behaviors. By establishing boundaries, the nurse can maintain a safe therapeutic relationship with the client. Allowing the client to vent their feelings without interruption (Choice B) may not always be beneficial, as it could reinforce maladaptive behaviors. Encouraging participation in group therapy (Choice C) can be helpful but setting boundaries is more critical for individualized care. Providing the client with frequent reassurance and support (Choice D) may not address the underlying issues and can contribute to dependency rather than fostering independence and coping skills.
4. A male client with mental illness and substance dependency tells the mental health nurse that he has started using illegal drugs again and wants to seek treatment. Since he has a dual diagnosis, which person is best for the nurse to refer this client to first?
- A. The emergency room nurse.
- B. His case manager.
- C. The clinic healthcare provider.
- D. His support group sponsor.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The case manager (B) is responsible for coordinating community services, making them the best person to refer the client to first as they can describe available treatment options. The emergency room nurse (A) is unnecessary unless the client's behaviors pose imminent threats. The clinic healthcare provider (C) and support group sponsor (D) may be useful but coordinating a treatment program tailored to the client's needs is the priority in this scenario.
5. The LPN/LVN is assessing a client who is taking an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following symptoms is uniquely indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) and requires immediate attention?
- A. Very high temperature
- B. Muscular rigidity
- C. Tremors
- D. Altered consciousness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A very high temperature is a hallmark symptom of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS), which is a rare but potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. This symptom is uniquely indicative of NMS and requires immediate medical attention. Muscular rigidity, tremors, and altered consciousness can be seen in other conditions but are not as specifically linked to NMS as a very high temperature.
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