Nursing Elites

1. A client with depression is started on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). The client asks, 'How long will it take for this medication to work?' What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. It may take 2 to 4 weeks before you start feeling better.
• B. You should start feeling better within a few days.
• C. The medication works immediately to improve your mood.
• D. It may take up to 8 weeks for the medication to take full effect.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Explaining that it may take up to 8 weeks for the medication to take full effect provides the client with a realistic expectation. SSRI medications typically require time to build up in the body and exert their therapeutic effects. Choice A is incorrect as it underestimates the time frame required for the medication to work. Choice B is incorrect as SSRIs do not produce immediate effects. Choice C is incorrect as it falsely states that the medication works immediately, which is not true for SSRIs.

2. A client is scheduled to complete a positron emission tomography (PET) scan. The client asks the nurse to explain the reason the test was prescribed. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Images indicate the presence of tumors and scars.
• B. The scan clearly outlines structures of the brain.
• C. Results show activity in various portions of the brain.
• D. PET shows biochemical levels of neurotransmitters.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. PET scans are primarily used to detect and observe the metabolic activity in various parts of the brain. This helps in diagnosing conditions related to brain function, such as tumors, brain disorders, and overall brain activity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because PET scans focus on metabolic activity and functions in the brain rather than solely indicating the presence of tumors, outlining brain structures, or showing biochemical levels of neurotransmitters.

3. A client with schizophrenia who has been stabilized on medication is being discharged from the hospital. What discharge teaching is most important for the LPN/LVN to reinforce?

• A. The importance of adhering to the prescribed medication regimen.
• B. How to recognize early signs of relapse.
• C. The need to continue follow-up appointments with the healthcare provider.
• D. The importance of maintaining a healthy lifestyle, including proper diet and exercise.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Reinforcing the importance of adhering to the prescribed medication regimen is crucial for preventing relapse in clients with schizophrenia. Compliance with medication is essential in managing the symptoms and preventing a worsening of the condition. Choice B, recognizing early signs of relapse, is important but secondary to ensuring medication adherence. Choice C, follow-up appointments, is also important but not as critical as medication compliance immediately post-discharge. Choice D, maintaining a healthy lifestyle, is beneficial for overall health but is not as directly linked to preventing relapse in schizophrenia as medication adherence.

4. A client with Alzheimer's disease is becoming increasingly agitated and combative in the late afternoon. What is the most appropriate intervention?

• A. Offer a sedative medication to calm the client.
• B. Encourage the client to rest in a quiet, low-stimulation environment.
• C. Use reality orientation to reduce confusion.
• D. Engage the client in physical activity to reduce agitation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to rest in a quiet, low-stimulation environment is the most appropriate intervention for a client with Alzheimer's disease who is becoming agitated and combative in the late afternoon. This approach helps reduce agitation and prevent overstimulation, providing a calming and soothing environment for the client. Offering a sedative medication (Choice A) should be avoided as it may have side effects and should only be considered as a last resort. Reality orientation (Choice C) may increase confusion and distress in clients with advanced Alzheimer's disease. Engaging the client in physical activity (Choice D) could potentially escalate the agitation rather than reduce it in this scenario.

5. What is the best initial action for the nurse to take with a manic depressive male client who becomes loud and verbally aggressive towards a nurse?

• A. Have the staff escort the client to his room.
• B. Tell the client that his behavior will be recorded in his record.
• C. Redirect the client by asking him to engage in a game with peers.
• D. Review the medication record for an antipsychotic drug.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In dealing with a manic depressive client who is being verbally aggressive, the best initial action for the nurse is to redirect the client by engaging him in a more constructive activity, such as playing card games with peers. This approach can help de-escalate the situation, shift the client's focus positively, and provide a distraction from the current behavior. Having the staff escort the client to his room may escalate the situation further. Threatening to record the behavior in his record is not likely to be effective in managing the immediate situation. Reviewing the medication record for an antipsychotic drug is important but would not be the best initial action in this scenario when the client is being verbally aggressive.

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