Nursing Elites

1. A client with depression is started on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). The client asks, 'How long will it take for this medication to work?' What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. It may take 2 to 4 weeks before you start feeling better.
• B. You should start feeling better within a few days.
• C. The medication works immediately to improve your mood.
• D. It may take up to 8 weeks for the medication to take full effect.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Explaining that it may take up to 8 weeks for the medication to take full effect provides the client with a realistic expectation. SSRI medications typically require time to build up in the body and exert their therapeutic effects. Choice A is incorrect as it underestimates the time frame required for the medication to work. Choice B is incorrect as SSRIs do not produce immediate effects. Choice C is incorrect as it falsely states that the medication works immediately, which is not true for SSRIs.

2. A client with schizophrenia who has been stabilized on medication is being discharged from the hospital. What discharge teaching is most important for the LPN/LVN to reinforce?

• A. The importance of adhering to the prescribed medication regimen.
• B. How to recognize early signs of relapse.
• C. The need to continue follow-up appointments with the healthcare provider.
• D. The importance of maintaining a healthy lifestyle, including proper diet and exercise.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Reinforcing the importance of adhering to the prescribed medication regimen is crucial for preventing relapse in clients with schizophrenia. Compliance with medication is essential in managing the symptoms and preventing a worsening of the condition. Choice B, recognizing early signs of relapse, is important but secondary to ensuring medication adherence. Choice C, follow-up appointments, is also important but not as critical as medication compliance immediately post-discharge. Choice D, maintaining a healthy lifestyle, is beneficial for overall health but is not as directly linked to preventing relapse in schizophrenia as medication adherence.

3. The community health nurse talks to a male client who has bipolar disorder. The client explains that he sleeps 4 to 5 hours a night and is working with his partner to start two new businesses and build an empire. The client stopped taking his medications several days ago. What nursing problem has the highest priority?

• A. Excessive work activity.
• B. Decreased need for sleep.
• C. Medication management.
• D. Inflated self-esteem.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important nursing problem is medication management (C) because compliance with the medication regimen will help prevent hospitalization. The client is also exhibiting signs of mania, such as excessive work activity (A), decreased need for sleep (B), and inflated self-esteem (D); however, these problems do not have the priority of medication management. Managing the medications is crucial to stabilize the client's condition and prevent potential harm associated with untreated bipolar disorder.

4. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with clozapine (Clozaril). What laboratory test is most important for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Liver function tests
• B. Kidney function tests
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Blood glucose levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: White blood cell count. Clozapine can lead to agranulocytosis, a severe drop in white blood cells, which can be life-threatening. Monitoring the white blood cell count is crucial to detect this condition early. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while liver and kidney function tests are important in monitoring other aspects of health, the most critical concern with clozapine therapy is the risk of agranulocytosis, making monitoring white blood cell count the priority.

5. The nurse plans to help an 18-year-old female intellectually disabled client ambulate on the first postoperative day after an appendectomy. When the nurse tells the client it is time to get out of bed, the client becomes angry and tells the nurse, 'Get out of here! I'll get up when I'm ready!' Which response is best for the nurse to make?

• A. Your healthcare provider has prescribed ambulation on the first postoperative day.
• B. You must ambulate to avoid complications that could cause more discomfort than ambulating.
• C. I know how you feel. You're angry about having to ambulate, but this will help you get well.
• D. I'll be back in 30 minutes to help you get out of bed and walk around the room.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: (D) provides a 'cooling off' period, is firm, direct, non-threatening, and avoids arguing with the client. (A) is avoiding responsibility by referring to the healthcare provider. (B) is trying to reason with an intellectually disabled client and is threatening the client with 'complications.' (C) is telling the client how she feels (angry), and the nurse does not really 'know' how this client feels, unless the nurse is also intellectually disabled and has also just had an appendectomy.

Similar Questions