HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health
1. Which diet selection by a client who is depressed and taking the MAO inhibitor tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate) indicates to the nurse that the client understands the dietary restrictions imposed by this medication regimen?
- A. Hamburger, French fries, and chocolate milkshake.
- B. Liver and onions, broccoli, and decaffeinated coffee.
- C. Pepperoni and cheese pizza, tossed salad, and a soft drink.
- D. Roast beef, baked potato with butter, and iced tea.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Roast beef, baked potato with butter, and iced tea are safe choices as they do not contain tyramine, which must be avoided with MAO inhibitors like Parnate. Tyramine-rich foods like aged cheeses, certain meats, and fermented products can cause a hypertensive crisis when combined with MAO inhibitors. Choices A, B, and C contain foods high in tyramine and are not recommended for individuals taking MAO inhibitors.
2. An LPN/LVN is caring for a suicidal client. The appropriate nursing intervention in dealing with this client is to:
- A. Demonstrate confidence in the client's ability to deal with stressors
- B. Provide hope and reassurance that the problems will resolve themselves
- C. Display an attitude of detachment, confrontation, and efficiency
- D. Provide authority, action, and participation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When caring for a suicidal client, providing authority, taking action, and encouraging the client's participation in their care are essential. Choice A is incorrect as it may not be sufficient for the critical situation of a suicidal client. Choice B, while offering hope, may not address the immediate risk of harm. Choice C's attitude of detachment and confrontation can be counterproductive in establishing trust and rapport with the client. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to provide authority, take action to ensure safety, and involve the client in the care process.
3. The nurse is planning care for a 32-year-old male client diagnosed with HIV infection who has a history of chronic depression. Recently, the client's viral load has begun to increase rather than decrease despite his adherence to the HIV drug regimen. What should the nurse do first while taking the client's history upon admission to the hospital?
- A. Determine if the client attends a support group weekly.
- B. Hold all antidepressant medications until further notice.
- C. Ask the client if he takes St. John's Wort routinely.
- D. Have the client describe any recent changes in mood.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse's top priority upon admission is to determine if the client has been taking St. John's Wort, an herbal preparation often used for depression. St. John's Wort can interact adversely with medications used to treat HIV infection, potentially explaining the rise in the viral load (C). Asking about attending support groups (A) or recent changes in mood (D) may provide valuable information about the client's depression but is not as critical as determining St. John's Wort use. Holding antidepressant medications (B) without assessing for potential interactions can be harmful to the client.
4. When a client with major depressive disorder expresses feelings of worthlessness and hopelessness, what is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Encourage the client to engage in recreational activities.
- B. Suggest the client keep a journal of their thoughts and feelings.
- C. Assess the client for suicidal ideation.
- D. Provide the client with positive affirmations.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the client for suicidal ideation. When a client expresses feelings of worthlessness and hopelessness, it is crucial to evaluate the risk of self-harm. Encouraging recreational activities (choice A) or suggesting journaling (choice B) may be helpful interventions but assessing for suicidal ideation takes precedence due to the immediate risk of harm. Providing positive affirmations (choice D) is not the priority when safety is a concern.
5. The wife of a male client recently diagnosed with schizophrenia asks the nurse, 'What exactly is schizophrenia? Is my husband all right?' Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide to this family member?
- A. It sounds like you're worried about your husband. Let's sit down and talk.
- B. It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.
- C. Your husband will be just fine if he takes his medications regularly.
- D. I think you should talk to your husband's psychologist about this question.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best response for the LPN/LVN to provide to the wife of a male client diagnosed with schizophrenia is choice B: 'It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.' This response educates the wife about the nature of schizophrenia, explaining that it is caused by a chemical imbalance in the brain leading to disorganized thinking, helping her understand the condition better. Choice A does not directly address the question and instead shifts the focus to a different aspect. Choice C gives false reassurance without providing necessary information about schizophrenia. Choice D deflects the responsibility of providing information to the psychologist instead of addressing the wife's concerns directly.
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