Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client with depression who has been prescribed sertraline (Zoloft). The client reports experiencing nausea. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. "You should stop taking the medication immediately."
• B. "Nausea is a common side effect and usually decreases over time."
• C. "Try taking the medication with food to reduce nausea."
• D. "I will inform the healthcare provider to change your medication."

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Nausea is a common side effect of sertraline, and clients should be reassured that it usually decreases as their body adjusts to the medication." Choice A is incorrect because abruptly stopping the medication without consulting a healthcare provider can be harmful. Choice C is a good suggestion to reduce nausea by taking the medication with food but does not address the temporary nature of the side effect. Choice D is unnecessary at this point since nausea is a common side effect that may improve with time.

2. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. What is the most important intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement during the first 24 hours of hospitalization?

• A. Encourage the client to eat small, frequent meals.
• B. Monitor the client's vital signs and weight.
• C. Establish a trusting relationship with the client.
• D. Provide emotional support to the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's vital signs and weight. This intervention is crucial in assessing the severity of the client's condition and planning appropriate care. Vital signs and weight monitoring help in evaluating the client's physiological status and identifying any immediate concerns related to anorexia nervosa. Choices A, C, and D are important aspects of care for a client with anorexia nervosa; however, during the initial 24 hours of hospitalization, monitoring vital signs and weight takes precedence as it provides essential data for the client's ongoing management and treatment.

3. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with risperidone (Risperdal). The nurse notices that the client has a shuffling gait and tremors. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a PRN dose of an anticholinergic medication.
• B. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client.
• C. Assess the client's blood glucose level.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A shuffling gait and tremors may indicate extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) from risperidone. The nurse's priority action should be to administer an anticholinergic medication as it can help alleviate these symptoms associated with EPS. Documenting the findings and monitoring the client (Choice B) are important but addressing the immediate symptoms takes precedence. Assessing the client's blood glucose level (Choice C) is not directly related to the observed symptoms of shuffling gait and tremors. While notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important, it is not the priority action when dealing with EPS symptoms.

4. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

• A. Ask the client to describe the voices and what they are saying.
• B. Tell the client that the voices are not real.
• C. Encourage the client to engage in reality-based activities.
• D. Ask the client to focus on positive thoughts instead of the voices.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with schizophrenia experiencing auditory hallucinations is to encourage them to engage in reality-based activities. This intervention helps manage auditory hallucinations by redirecting the client's focus away from the hallucinations. Choice A is not recommended as it may exacerbate the hallucinations or distress the client. Choice B is incorrect because denying the reality of the voices can invalidate the client's experiences. Choice D, asking the client to focus on positive thoughts, may not be effective in addressing the auditory hallucinations directly.

5. A male adolescent is admitted with bipolar disorder after being released from jail for assault with a deadly weapon. When the nurse asks the teen to identify his reason for the assault, he replies, 'Because he made me mad!' Which goal is best for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care? The client will

• A. outline methods for managing anger.
• B. control impulsive actions toward self and others.
• C. verbalize feelings when anger occurs.
• D. recognize consequences for behaviors exhibited.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's response indicates poor impulse control, a common issue in individuals with bipolar disorder. The most critical goal for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care is to help the client control impulsive actions toward self and others. This goal is essential for preventing harmful behaviors and mitigating the social consequences associated with impulsivity. While outlining methods for managing anger, verbalizing feelings when anger occurs, and recognizing consequences for behaviors exhibited are important aspects of therapy, they do not directly address the urgent need to control impulsive behavior in this case.

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