a moderately depressed client who was hospitalized 2 days ago suddenly begins smiling and reporting that the crisis is over the client says to a nurse
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Mental Health HESI 2023

1. A moderately depressed client who was hospitalized 2 days ago suddenly begins smiling and reporting that the crisis is over. The client says to a nurse, 'I'm finally cured.' The LPN/LVN interprets this behavior as a cue to modify the treatment plan by:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A sudden improvement in mood and declaring being cured can be warning signs of a decision to attempt suicide. Therefore, the appropriate action would be to increase the level of suicide precautions to ensure the safety of the client. This can involve closer monitoring and restriction of items that could be harmful. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not address the potential risk of suicide that may be present with the sudden change in behavior.

2. An outpatient clinic that has been receiving haloperidol (Haldol) for 2 days develops muscular rigidity, altered consciousness, a temperature of 103, and trouble breathing on day 3. The LPN/LVN interprets these findings as indicating which of the following?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) is a life-threatening condition characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, altered consciousness, and autonomic dysregulation. It is a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol (Haldol). NMS requires immediate intervention, including discontinuation of the offending medication and supportive care. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements of the face and extremities that can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Extrapyramidal adverse effects (Choice C) encompass a range of movement disorders like dystonia, akathisia, and parkinsonism that can result from antipsychotic medications, but they do not present with hyperthermia and altered consciousness as in NMS. Drug-induced parkinsonism (Choice D) is a form of parkinsonism caused by certain medications, but it typically presents with symptoms similar to Parkinson's disease, such as tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity, without the severe hyperthermia and autonomic dysregulation seen in NMS.

3. A 19-year-old female client with a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa wants to help serve dinner trays to other clients on a psychiatric unit. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with anorexia should not be allowed to plan or prepare food for unit activities, as this can reinforce their perception of self-control. Allowing the client to serve dinner trays (C) may trigger distress or unhealthy behaviors. Therefore, it is best to provide an alternative suggestion for the client to participate in the unit's activities (B). Encouraging the client to assist with other activities (A) may inadvertently reinforce negative behaviors related to food. Explaining to the client that she cannot participate in serving dinner trays (D) without offering an alternative does not address the client's desire to help and may lead to feelings of rejection.

4. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which intervention is most appropriate for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assisting the client in developing coping strategies is an appropriate intervention for managing PTSD. This approach helps the client build resilience and learn how to effectively cope with symptoms. Choice A, encouraging the client to talk about the traumatic event, may not be appropriate as it can potentially re-traumatize the client. Referring the client to a PTSD support group, as in choice C, can be beneficial but may not be the most immediate intervention. Administering medications, as in choice D, is important in some cases, but focusing on coping strategies should be prioritized as a holistic approach to managing PTSD.

5. What assessment is the priority focus for a client with major depression?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Suicidal ideation. When dealing with a client diagnosed with major depression, assessing for suicidal ideation is of utmost importance. Individuals with major depression have an increased risk of suicide; hence, evaluating their risk for self-harm is crucial. Mood and affect, while important, come secondary to ensuring the safety of the client. Nutritional status and fluid and electrolyte balance are essential components of care but are not the priority when dealing with a client with major depression.

Similar Questions

An LPN/LVN is reviewing the assessment data of a client admitted to the mental health unit. The nurse notes that the admission nurse documented that the client is experiencing anxiety as a result of a situational crisis. The nurse determines that this type of crisis is caused by:
A client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reports having frequent nightmares. What is the nurse's best response?
A client is responding to auditory hallucinations and shakes a fist at a nurse and says, 'Back off, witch!' The nurse follows the client into the day room. What action should the nurse implement?
What is the best initial action for the nurse to take with a manic depressive male client who becomes loud and verbally aggressive towards a nurse?
The nurse is conducting discharge teaching for a client with schizophrenia who plans to live in a group home. Which statement is most indicative of the need for careful follow-up after discharge?

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses