Nursing Elites

1. An LPN/LVN is reviewing the assessment data of a client admitted to the mental health unit. The nurse notes that the admission nurse documented that the client is experiencing anxiety as a result of a situational crisis. The nurse determines that this type of crisis is caused by:

• A. Witnessing a murder
• B. The death of a loved one
• C. A fire that destroyed the client's home
• D. A recent rape episode experienced by the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'The death of a loved one.' A situational crisis, like the death of a loved one, can lead to anxiety due to a significant change or loss in the person's life. Choices A, C, and D involve traumatic events, but a situational crisis typically refers to life events that disrupt an individual's normal pattern of living, such as the death of a loved one.

2. A male client with borderline personality disorder is manipulative and consistently attempts to violate unit rules. What is the best approach for the nurse to take?

• A. Enforce unit rules consistently with all clients.
• B. Ignore the manipulative behaviors to avoid confrontation.
• C. Provide the client with special privileges to avoid conflict.
• D. Confront the client directly about his behavior.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct approach for the nurse to take when dealing with a male client with borderline personality disorder who is manipulative and consistently attempts to violate unit rules is to enforce unit rules consistently with all clients. By maintaining consistency in enforcing rules, the nurse establishes clear boundaries and provides structure, which are essential for managing manipulative behavior in clients with borderline personality disorder. Ignoring the manipulative behaviors (Choice B) may lead to the reinforcement of negative behaviors. Providing the client with special privileges (Choice C) can enable further manipulation and is not recommended. Confronting the client directly about his behavior (Choice D) may escalate the situation and is less effective than consistent rule enforcement.

3. A client with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine (Zyprexa). What is the most important side effect for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Weight gain
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Weight gain. Olanzapine (Zyprexa) is known to cause significant weight gain in patients. This side effect is crucial to monitor because it can lead to metabolic syndrome, diabetes, and cardiovascular issues. Monitoring the client's weight regularly and providing appropriate dietary guidance is essential. Hypotension (choice A), dry mouth (choice C), and tachycardia (choice D) are not commonly associated with olanzapine use and are not the primary side effects to monitor in this case.

4. A female client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) has been experiencing flashbacks. Which intervention should the nurse implement to help the client?

• A. Encourage the client to talk about the trauma.
• B. Advise the client to avoid triggers that cause flashbacks.
• C. Help the client stay grounded in the present moment.
• D. Refer the client to group therapy for PTSD.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with PTSD experiencing flashbacks is to help them stay grounded in the present moment. This technique can reduce the intensity of flashbacks and provide a sense of safety. Encouraging the client to talk about the trauma (Choice A) may exacerbate the symptoms and should be done cautiously under professional guidance. Advising the client to avoid triggers (Choice B) is important, but solely relying on avoidance may not address the underlying issues. Referring the client to group therapy (Choice D) can be beneficial, but in the immediate context of managing flashbacks, grounding techniques are more appropriate.

5. The nurse is taking a history for a female client who is requesting a routine female exam. Which assessment finding requires follow-up?

• A. Menstruation onset at age 9.
• B. Contraceptive method includes condoms only.
• C. Menstrual cycle occurs every 35 days.
• D. 'Black-out' after one drink last night on a date.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Experiencing a 'black-out' after consuming only one drink is highly unusual and may indicate the client was drugged, necessitating immediate follow-up. Menstruation onset at age 9 and a menstrual cycle occurring every 35 days, although on the outer ranges of 'average,' are within acceptable norms. Relying solely on condoms as a contraceptive method increases the risk of conception.

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