Nursing Elites

1. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with haloperidol (Haldol) and begins to exhibit symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Continue the medication and monitor for worsening symptoms.
• B. Administer the next dose of haloperidol with food.
• C. Report the symptoms to the healthcare provider immediately.
• D. Educate the client about the side effects of haloperidol.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to report the symptoms to the healthcare provider immediately. Tardive dyskinesia is a serious side effect of antipsychotic medications, including haloperidol. Prompt reporting is crucial to evaluate the need for medication adjustment or change in treatment. Continuing the medication without intervention (choice A) can worsen the symptoms. Administering the next dose (choice B) is not appropriate when tardive dyskinesia is suspected. Educating the client (choice D) is important but not the priority when dealing with acute symptoms of tardive dyskinesia.

2. A client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed buspirone (BuSpar). The client asks how long it will take for the medication to start working. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. You should start feeling better within a few days.
• B. It may take 2 to 4 weeks before you notice an improvement.
• C. Buspirone works immediately to reduce anxiety symptoms.
• D. You will need to take this medication for at least a year.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Buspirone typically takes 2 to 4 weeks to become fully effective. It is essential to inform the client that it may take some time before they notice an improvement. Choice A is incorrect because buspirone does not work immediately. Choice C is also incorrect as buspirone does not provide immediate relief. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests a longer duration of treatment than necessary.

3. The nurse is taking a history for a female client who is requesting a routine female exam. Which assessment finding requires follow-up?

• A. Menstruation onset at age 9.
• B. Contraceptive method includes condoms only.
• C. Menstrual cycle occurs every 35 days.
• D. 'Black-out' after one drink last night on a date.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Experiencing a 'black-out' after consuming only one drink is highly unusual and may indicate the client was drugged, necessitating immediate follow-up. Menstruation onset at age 9 and a menstrual cycle occurring every 35 days, although on the outer ranges of 'average,' are within acceptable norms. Relying solely on condoms as a contraceptive method increases the risk of conception.

4. A moderately depressed client who was hospitalized 2 days ago suddenly begins smiling and reporting that the crisis is over. The client says to a nurse, 'I'm finally cured.' The LPN/LVN interprets this behavior as a cue to modify the treatment plan by:

• A. Suggesting a reduction of medication
• B. Allowing increased 'in-room' activities
• C. Increasing the level of suicide precautions
• D. Allowing the client off-unit privileges as needed

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A sudden improvement in mood and declaring being cured can be warning signs of a decision to attempt suicide. Therefore, the appropriate action would be to increase the level of suicide precautions to ensure the safety of the client. This can involve closer monitoring and restriction of items that could be harmful. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not address the potential risk of suicide that may be present with the sudden change in behavior.

5. A female client in an acute care facility has been on antipsychotic medications for the past three days. Her psychotic behaviors have decreased and she has had no adverse reactions. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. What action should the nurse initiate?

• A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor her frequently.
• B. Take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately.
• C. Describe the symptoms to the charge nurse and document them in the client's record.
• D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of her medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to initiate is to take the client's vital signs and notify the physician immediately. These symptoms may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome, a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications, requiring immediate medical attention. Placing the client on seizure precautions and monitoring her frequently (Choice A) is not the most appropriate action in this situation. Describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them in the client's record (Choice C) delays prompt medical intervention. Choosing not to take any action (Choice D) is dangerous as the symptoms described suggest a serious condition that needs urgent evaluation and treatment.

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