Nursing Elites

1. Which statement about contemporary mental health nursing practice is accurate?

• A. There is one approved theoretical framework for psychiatric nursing practice.
• B. Psychiatric nursing has yet to be recognized as a core mental health discipline.
• C. Contemporary practice of psychiatric nursing is primarily focused on inpatient care.
• D. The psychiatric nursing client may be an individual, family, group, organization, or community.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The accurate statement about contemporary mental health nursing practice is that the psychiatric nursing client may be an individual, family, group, organization, or community. Mental health nursing extends beyond individual care to address the impact of psychiatric stressors on families, groups, and entire communities. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect: A is false as there are various theoretical frameworks used in psychiatric nursing, B is inaccurate as psychiatric nursing is a core discipline in mental health, and C is wrong as contemporary psychiatric nursing involves various settings beyond just inpatient care.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with depression who has been prescribed sertraline (Zoloft). The client reports experiencing nausea. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. "You should stop taking the medication immediately."
• B. "Nausea is a common side effect and usually decreases over time."
• C. "Try taking the medication with food to reduce nausea."
• D. "I will inform the healthcare provider to change your medication."

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Nausea is a common side effect of sertraline, and clients should be reassured that it usually decreases as their body adjusts to the medication." Choice A is incorrect because abruptly stopping the medication without consulting a healthcare provider can be harmful. Choice C is a good suggestion to reduce nausea by taking the medication with food but does not address the temporary nature of the side effect. Choice D is unnecessary at this point since nausea is a common side effect that may improve with time.

3. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is hospitalized for treatment. Which intervention is most important for the LPN/LVN to include in the client's plan of care?

• A. Allow the client to engage in compulsive behaviors as a way to reduce anxiety.
• B. Encourage the client to ignore the compulsive behaviors.
• C. Help the client to understand the purpose of compulsive behaviors.
• D. Work with the client to gradually reduce the frequency of compulsive behaviors.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with OCD is to work with them to gradually reduce the frequency of compulsive behaviors. This approach helps the client manage their condition effectively without causing undue distress. Allowing the client to engage in compulsive behaviors can reinforce the disorder rather than alleviate it. Encouraging the client to ignore compulsive behaviors does not address the core issue of OCD. While helping the client understand the purpose of compulsive behaviors can be beneficial, actively working to reduce these behaviors is more crucial in the treatment of OCD.

4. A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder tells the nurse that she wants to stop taking her lithium. She states, 'I feel fine, and I don't think I need it anymore.' What should the nurse do first?

• A. Agree with the client that she seems fine now.
• B. Remind the client of the importance of lithium.
• C. Ask the healthcare provider to discontinue the lithium prescription.
• D. Arrange for a psychiatric evaluation for the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with bipolar disorder expresses a desire to stop taking lithium because they feel fine, the nurse's initial action should be to remind the client of the importance of lithium. This approach helps educate the client about the necessity of medication adherence in managing bipolar disorder. Agreeing with the client or immediately arranging a psychiatric evaluation may not address the root issue of medication non-adherence. Asking the healthcare provider to discontinue the prescription without further assessment and intervention could potentially jeopardize the client's stability and treatment plan.

5. Several clients with chronic mental illness and multiple substance abuse histories live in a group residential home and attend a daycare mental health facility where group and individual therapies are provided. The RN finds the common bathroom at the facility with sputum on the walls, urine in the sink and on the floors, and the toilet stopped up with tissue, paper towels, and feces. What is the priority issue that the RN should address?

• A. Medication non-compliance.
• B. Number of bathroom facilities.
• C. Infection control.
• D. Acting out behaviors.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority issue that the RN should address is infection control. The unsanitary conditions in the bathroom, with sputum on the walls, urine in the sink and on the floors, and the toilet clogged with tissue, paper towels, and feces, pose a significant health risk to all residents and staff. Addressing infection control is crucial to prevent the spread of diseases and ensure the well-being of everyone in the facility. Medication non-compliance is important but not the priority in this situation. The number of bathroom facilities, while relevant, is not the immediate concern when faced with unsanitary conditions. Acting out behaviors, though a valid concern in mental health settings, are not the priority when faced with such unsanitary and potentially infectious conditions.

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