Nursing Elites

1. Which statement about contemporary mental health nursing practice is accurate?

• A. There is one approved theoretical framework for psychiatric nursing practice.
• B. Psychiatric nursing has yet to be recognized as a core mental health discipline.
• C. Contemporary practice of psychiatric nursing is primarily focused on inpatient care.
• D. The psychiatric nursing client may be an individual, family, group, organization, or community.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The accurate statement about contemporary mental health nursing practice is that the psychiatric nursing client may be an individual, family, group, organization, or community. Mental health nursing extends beyond individual care to address the impact of psychiatric stressors on families, groups, and entire communities. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect: A is false as there are various theoretical frameworks used in psychiatric nursing, B is inaccurate as psychiatric nursing is a core discipline in mental health, and C is wrong as contemporary psychiatric nursing involves various settings beyond just inpatient care.

2. A client with bipolar disorder is being treated with lithium. The nurse should monitor the client for which early sign of lithium toxicity?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Tremors
• C. Polyuria
• D. Blurred vision

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Diarrhea is an early sign of lithium toxicity. When a client being treated with lithium presents with diarrhea, it can indicate the beginning of lithium toxicity. Monitoring for this symptom is crucial as it can progress to more severe toxicity if not addressed promptly. Tremors (choice B) are more commonly associated with the therapeutic effects of lithium rather than toxicity. Polyuria (choice C) is a common side effect of lithium, but it is not typically an early sign of toxicity. Blurred vision (choice D) is not a common early sign of lithium toxicity. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

3. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with haloperidol (Haldol) and begins to exhibit symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Continue the medication and monitor for worsening symptoms.
• B. Administer the next dose of haloperidol with food.
• C. Report the symptoms to the healthcare provider immediately.
• D. Educate the client about the side effects of haloperidol.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to report the symptoms to the healthcare provider immediately. Tardive dyskinesia is a serious side effect of antipsychotic medications, including haloperidol. Prompt reporting is crucial to evaluate the need for medication adjustment or change in treatment. Continuing the medication without intervention (choice A) can worsen the symptoms. Administering the next dose (choice B) is not appropriate when tardive dyskinesia is suspected. Educating the client (choice D) is important but not the priority when dealing with acute symptoms of tardive dyskinesia.

4. An elderly female client with advanced dementia is admitted to the hospital with a fractured hip. The client repeatedly tells the staff, 'Take me home. I want my Mommy.' Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Orient the client to the time, place, and person.
• B. Tell the client that the nurse is there and will help her.
• C. Remind the client that her mother is no longer living.
• D. Explain the seriousness of her injury and need for hospitalization.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Those with dementia often refer to home or parents when seeking security and comfort. The nurse should use the techniques of 'offering self' and 'talking to the feelings' to provide reassurance (B). Clients with advanced dementia have permanent physiological changes in the brain (plaques and tangles) that prevent them from comprehending and retaining new information, so choices A, C, and D are likely to be of little use to this client and do not address the emotional needs expressed by the client. Option B acknowledges the client's feelings, offers support, and provides reassurance, which can help comfort the client during this distressing time.

5. A male client with borderline personality disorder is manipulative and consistently attempts to violate unit rules. What is the best approach for the nurse to take?

• A. Enforce unit rules consistently with all clients.
• B. Ignore the manipulative behaviors to avoid confrontation.
• C. Provide the client with special privileges to avoid conflict.
• D. Confront the client directly about his behavior.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct approach for the nurse to take when dealing with a male client with borderline personality disorder who is manipulative and consistently attempts to violate unit rules is to enforce unit rules consistently with all clients. By maintaining consistency in enforcing rules, the nurse establishes clear boundaries and provides structure, which are essential for managing manipulative behavior in clients with borderline personality disorder. Ignoring the manipulative behaviors (Choice B) may lead to the reinforcement of negative behaviors. Providing the client with special privileges (Choice C) can enable further manipulation and is not recommended. Confronting the client directly about his behavior (Choice D) may escalate the situation and is less effective than consistent rule enforcement.

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