the charge nurse is collaborating with the nursing staff about the plan of care for a client who is very depressed what is the most important interven
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Mental Health Practice Questions

1. The charge nurse is collaborating with the nursing staff about the plan of care for a client who is very depressed. What is the most important intervention to implement during the first 48 hours after the client's admission to the unit?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most critical intervention to implement during the first 48 hours after admitting a depressed client is to maintain safety (B). Depression increases the risk of suicide; hence ensuring a safe environment is the priority. While monitoring appetite (A), providing supportive contact (C), and encouraging participation in activities (D) are important aspects of care for a depressed client, ensuring safety takes precedence in the initial phase of admission.

2. An adult male client who was admitted to the mental health unit yesterday tells the nurse that microchips were planted in his head for military surveillance of his every move. Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response for the LPN/LVN to provide is option A: 'You are in the hospital, and I am the nurse caring for you.' This response is effective as it grounds the client in the present reality while also acknowledging the client's feelings. It shows acceptance of the client's experience without directly challenging the delusional belief, which can help build rapport and trust. Option B focuses on anxiety rather than validating the client's experience or addressing the delusion. Option C suggests an unrelated activity that may not be helpful in this situation. Option D attempts to correct the client's belief, which is not likely to be effective in managing delusional thoughts.

3. A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action will the nurse initiate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a severe and life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs. The major symptoms include fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and encephalopathy. Respiratory failure, cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, and/or renal failure can lead to death. This is an emergency situation requiring immediate critical care, thus the correct action is to transfer the client to the ICU (B). Seizure precautions (A) are not relevant in this scenario. Merely describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them (C) or taking no action assuming these are common side effects (D) fail to address the critical nature of the situation and the urgency of immediate intervention.

4. A male client with schizophrenia tells the nurse that the voices he hears are saying, 'You must kill yourself.' To assist the client in coping with these thoughts, which response is best for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should teach the client to use self-talk to disprove the voices. Although exercising may be helpful, the client's concrete thinking may make it difficult to understand this suggestion. Clients with schizophrenia have difficulty initiating interaction with others. Auditory hallucinations are often relentless, so it is difficult to ignore them.

5. A client with a leg amputation is upset about his appearance. The LPN/LVN intends to address which most closely associated psychosocial problem?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A client with a leg amputation being upset about his appearance is most closely associated with concerns about body image and self-perception. This individual may be worried about how others perceive them, impacting their self-esteem and overall well-being. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the primary psychosocial issue in this scenario is related to body image and self-perception, not mobility, social isolation, or activity tolerance.

Similar Questions

A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. What is the most important intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement during the first 24 hours of hospitalization?
A client is scheduled to complete a positron emission tomography (PET) scan. The client asks the nurse to explain the reason the test was prescribed. How should the nurse respond?
The nurse plans to help an 18-year-old female intellectually disabled client ambulate on the first postoperative day after an appendectomy. When the nurse tells the client it is time to get out of bed, the client becomes angry and tells the nurse, 'Get out of here! I'll get up when I'm ready!' Which response is best for the nurse to make?
An older female adult who lives in a nursing home is loudly demanding that the nurse call her son who has been deceased for five years. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
The nurse is conducting discharge teaching for a client with schizophrenia who plans to live in a group home. Which statement is most indicative of the need for careful follow-up after discharge?

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses